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Old 12-30-2011, 07:34 AM   #31
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My motivation is to discover the historical truth of christian origins,
I wish you luck, but I estimate your chances of success as small.
I think that Pete should try to understand that just as you must create fire before you can purify gold you must feed wolves so that they can nurture lambs because sheep only have milk and not meat as food for sheep.

The three orders feed my lambs, tend my sheep, and feed my sheep, that is followed by the solemn declaration wherein "another will tie you fast and carry you off against your will" (Jn.21:15-) is where the fire is needed to finish the job and for this the wolves are needed and is why the first Church was called Christian and out of this chaos the Catholic church was purged.

That practice was maintained by the Jesuits abroad who were charismatic to do fantastic tricks to gain converts fast but that later would be shunned by the same religion that introduced it first once they got the women on side.
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Old 12-30-2011, 04:37 PM   #32
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Thanks for these references. Can you advise which Greek form related to χρηστοι occurs in Plato, who is reported to have used the term "The Good" in his texts by Plotinus?
χρηστοι in the nominative appears in Cratylus (386 b.5; d.5), Hipparchus (227 d.3; 232 c.5), Euthydemus (307 b.7), and Leges (950 b.7). It appears in other cases a few dozen times in these and other works. In each case it is used to refer generically to good people, usually as a contrast to wicked people. It does not have a special appellative use. Plotinus was a third century philosopher, and there are only eight total occurrences of any form of word beginning with χρηστ- in his writings. Here are all of them with a few lines of context for each:

Quote:
1. Plotinus Phil., Enneades 3 chapter 2, section 18 line 19.
μένων ὑπὸ ἀνδρῶν πονηρῶν. Εἰ οὖν ἄτοπος ἡ εἰσαγωγὴ
τῶν ψυχῶν, αἳ δὴ τὰ πονηρά, αἱ δὲ τὰ χρηστὰ ἐργάσονται
—ἀποστερήσομεν γὰρ τὸν λόγον καὶ τῶν χρηστῶν ἀφ- (20)

2. Plotinus Phil., Enneades. Ennead 3 chapter 3 section 1 line 2.
3.3.
(1.) Τί τοίνυν δοκεῖ περὶ τούτων; Ἢ καὶ τὰ πονηρὰ καὶ
τὰ χρηστὰ λόγος περιείληφεν ὁ πᾶς, οὗ μέρη καὶ ταῦτα·
οὐ γὰρ ὁ πᾶς λόγος γεννᾷ ταῦτα, ἀλλ’ ὁ πᾶς ἐστι μετὰ

3. Plotinus Phil., Enneades. Ennead 4 chapter 4 section 38 line 5.
μέναις, ταῦτα οὐκ εἰς ἐκεῖνον ἕκαστον, ἀλλ’ εἰς τὴν τοῦ
δρωμένου φύσιν ἀνενεκτέον. Καὶ ὅσα μὲν χρηστὰ πρὸς ζωὴν (5)
ἤ τινα ἄλλην χρείαν συμβάλλεται τῇ δόσει, ἀνενεκτέον,
Χρηστέον

4. Plotinus Phil., Enneades. Ennead 5 chapter 8 section 12 line 25.
τὰ ἄλλα ἐλλείπῃ, ἀλλ’ ἐξ οὗ ἔστι καὶ ταῦτα ἔστιν· ἦν δ’
ἀεὶ καὶ ἔσται. Χρηστέον γὰρ τούτοις τοῖς ὀνόμασι τῇ τοῦ (25)
σημαίνειν ἐθέλειν ἀνάγκῃ. @1
χρηστόν

5. Plotinus Phil., Enneades. Ennead 3 chapter 3 section 5 line 27.
τὰ γενόμενα ἢ παρ’ ὁτουοῦν ἢ ζῴου ἢ ἀψύχου, εἴ τι
ἐφεξῆς τούτοις χρηστόν, πάλιν κατείληπται προνοίᾳ, ὡς
πανταχοῦ ἀρετὴν κρατεῖν καὶ μετατιθεμένων καὶ διορ-

6. Plotinus Phil., Enneades. Ennead 4 chapter 4 section 17 line 29.
ἐκ πάντων ὁ ἄνθρωπος κατὰ πολιτείαν τινὰ φαύλην· ἐν δὲ
τῷ μέσῳ, <ὡς> ἐν ᾗ πόλει κἂν χρηστόν τι κρατήσειε δημοτικῆς
πολιτείας οὐκ ἀκράτου οὔσης· ἐν δὲ τῷ βελτίονι ἀριστο- (30)
χρηστοτέρων

7. Plotinus Phil., Enneades. Ennead 4 chapter 3 section 31 line 19.
ἄλλους ἀλλαξάμενοι ὀλίγα τῶν ἐκείνων μεμνήμεθα, χρηστο-
τέρων δὲ γεγενημένων πλείω. (20)
(32.) Τί δὲ δὴ φίλων καὶ παίδων καὶ γυναικός; Πατρίδος @1
χρηστῶν

8. Plotinus Phil., Enneades. Ennead 3 chapter 2 section 18 line 20. (Browse)
τῶν ψυχῶν, αἳ δὴ τὰ πονηρά, αἱ δὲ τὰ χρηστὰ ἐργάσονται
—ἀποστερήσομεν γὰρ τὸν λόγον καὶ τῶν χρηστῶν ἀφ- (20)
αιροῦντες αὐτοῦ τὰ πονηρά—τί κωλύει καὶ τὰ τῶν
The usage here is pretty similar.
Thankyou very much for these references Maklelan.
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Old 12-30-2011, 04:50 PM   #33
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I also remember reading somewhere (I don't know how reliable the source) that a nomen sacrum meaning 'chrestos' was used in antiquity as a means of checking the quality of the works of scribes (i.e. that the writing was 'good' or 'checked' by someone with what became the Christ symbol). I have in vain searched for this reference so I could verify the evidence.
"The chi-rho device also appears in the margin
of a hypomnema on Homer, Iliad,
dated to the first century bce,
the chi-rho here a sign for
XPNCTOC (marking passages “useful” for excerpting).

The tau-rho device appears on some coins
of King Herod (37–4 bce), the taurho
intended to identify them with the
third year of his reign.



The Codex, the Nomina Sacra and the Staurogram’, in Text
and Artifact in the Religions of Mediterranean Antiquity:
Essays in Honour of ...

http://www.era.lib.ed.ac.uk/bitstrea...TB_article.pdf

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Old 12-30-2011, 06:49 PM   #34
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Originally Posted by mountainman View Post
"The chi-rho device also appears in the margin
of a hypomnema on Homer, Iliad,
dated to the first century bce,
the chi-rho here a sign for
XPNCTOC (marking passages “useful” for excerpting).

The tau-rho device appears on some coins
of King Herod (37–4 bce), the taurho
intended to identify them with the
third year of his reign.



The Codex, the Nomina Sacra and the Staurogram’, in Text
and Artifact in the Religions of Mediterranean Antiquity:
Essays in Honour of ...

http://www.era.lib.ed.ac.uk/bitstrea...TB_article.pdf

We're dealing with three different articles. Your quote is an alteration of some quotes from of this article:

Quote:
Quote:
Your quote: The tau-rho device appears on some coins of King Herod (37–4 BCE), the taurho intended to identify them with the third year of his reign.
Quote:
Actual quote: The tau-rho combination, the focus of this discussion, appears in pre/non-Christian usage as an abbreviation for τρ(οποω), τρ(ιακαω), and τρ(οκονδαω). Among specific noteworthy instances, there is the use of this device on some coins of King Herod (37–4 BCE), the tau-rho intended to identify them with the third year of his reign.
Quote:
Quote:
Your quote: The chi-rho device also appears in the margin of a hypomnema on Homer, Iliad, dated to the first century bce, the chi-rho here a sign for XPNCTOC (marking passages “useful” for excerpting)
Quote:
Actual quote: the device also appears in the margin of a hypomnema on Homer, Iliad, dated to the first century BCE, the chi-rho here a sign for χρηστον (marking passages “useful” for excerpting).
The change from χρηστον to χρηστος is not insignificant, as it suggests association with an individual named Chrestos. In actuality, it just marked the passage as interesting.

The title you've given us is from this text, and the link you've given us is to a third text. When I googled your quotes, I only came up with your website. Looking around I was struck by some of your claims. I hope you don't mind my longer post, but I'm just astonished at your methods.

I thought the following somewhat lengthy quote was interesting in light of your appeals to three different publications by Larry Hurtado and your arguments elsewhere:

Quote:
Someone will argue and flatly state: In the entire span of these works the abbreviations XS, XRS, and IS all refer to the character understood by the authors as a historical person referred to as Jesus-the-Christ. Okay, let's take a step or two back and look at this claim. What it says is that scholars today agree on what the codes mean, but this is no assurance of what the codes meant to the people who originated them. I ask, Where in the writings of that time and setting do we find anything that explains who set up the nomina sacra and why? I would like to see that information in the textual sources of the 4th century CE, or earlier.

I don't know who established the scribal conventions found in the NHC. I presume it was not the scribes themselves, but whoever oversaw them. Would this have been the head honchos in the hierarchy of the Christian Coptic Church, men like Shenoute? Probably. In that case, are we to assume that the overseers insisted on the codes to specify allusion to Jesus Christ of the New Teatament? But if they were so adamant about that identification, why use codes? Why not be literal and totally straightforward in naming the intended person? Wouldn't such literalness be consistent with the attitude of the early Church Fathers regarding the historical value of their sacred narrative? If we assume that the overseers imposed the code, we are left wondering why they, who advocated the literal Jesus and elevated that human figure to a divine status, would have encoded His Name?

Bear in mind that examples of the nomina sacra other than IC and XRS occur in the Nag Hammadi books. The Apocalypse of Adam (V, 5) shows these nams in code or full spelling with the superlinear mark: Seth, Adam, Eve (Euha), Deucalion (a figure from Greek myth), Ham, Japeth and Shem (sons of Noah), Sakla (a name for the Demiurge), Abrasax, Sablo, Gamaliel (Gnostic magical deities), the word Pneuma (spirit in Greek), Phersalo and Sauel, the word Aeon, Michou, Michar and Mnesinous (Gnostic angelic spirits), and Yesseus Mazareus Yessedekeus (invocatory name for the "Spirit of the Living Waters"). The name Noah, by contrast, is not coded, and Adam is inconsistently coded.

Now, I don't think that any scholar would argue that these nomina sacra refer to historical persons known actually to have lived in the early Christian era. So why should XC and XRC by any different? If the scribal convention was such, where is the textual proof in the words of those who introduced that convention? Lacking such proof, the accepted view of modern scholars about the XC and XRC is mere speculation. And my speculation is as good as theirs.
Notice Hurtado's comment about Snyder's book, which you link to and have brought up before:

Quote:
Snyder showed no awareness of the staurogram, and so his estimate of cross-symbolism in the pre-Constantinian period is simply wrong.
And in the footnote to this comment:

Quote:
I intend no particular condemnation of Snyder, for a failure to take account of the staurogram (and of the phenomena of early Christian manuscripts generally) is, sadly, rather widely demonstrated in contemporary studies of Christian origins.
You wouldn't know this to read your website! You don't present any of the scholarship that contradicts your assumptions, you just ask questions that have been answered numerous times over as if no one has ever asked them before. Without presenting other opinions, which are without exception informed by far more scholarship and education than yours could ever be, you simply insist that your guesses are as good as theirs. As I've shown, it's not a guess what underlies XC. It unquestionably abbreviates χριστος, and you've not yet been able to address that point.

You wonder out loud where the nomina sacra come from, suggesting overseers of the scribal projects (whom you appear to have simply invented) commanded it, and suggesting it doesn't refer to Jesus or Christ. If you'd actually read the Hurtado articles to which you referred you would have found discussion of the origins of the nomina sacra and a reference to an entire article on the question (this article). If you had kept looking, you'd have also found this more recent article. As an example of how your refusal to do actual research undermines your entire endeavor, Hurtado distinguishes quite definitively from the abbreviations used in non-Christian Greek and Latin texts and those of Christian texts:

Quote:
Abbreviations appear frequently in documentary papyri but scarcely in literary texts except in marginal notes and in copies prepared for private use of scholars. Frequently, the words abbreviated are simply those at random that occur at the end of a line. There is no standard system of abbreviation, and scribes appear to have followed their own preferences as to when to abbreviate and how to do so.

In contrast, the nomina sacra do not really serve as abbreviations at all. They are not intended to conserve space or labor. They appear more frequently in Christian manuscripts prepared for formal usage, such as public reading, the
Christian equivalent of "literary" texts. As already mentioned, the words involved are a relatively fixed set of terms, all of which have fairly obvious religious meaning. The aim is clearly to express religious reverence, to set apart these words visually in the way they are written.
His comments are corroborated by the staurogram article, which mentions two different kinds of abbreviations from non-Christian texts that only use the first two letters of the word and abbreviate completely mundane words. This is a completely different usage from the nomina sacra, which use the first and last letters and never abbreviate mundane words or names. He states further:

Quote:
As indicated already, pagan abbreviation practice does not seem to provide either a true analogy or the impetus.
He gives a likely reason for the adoption of this practice of abbreviation:

Quote:
If Greek abbreviation practices provided a quarry of scribal devices to adapt, it is probably in Jewish tradition that we find the closest analogies for understanding the religious meaning and aim involved in the nomina sacra. It is well known that by the first Christian century devout Jews were very particular about the oral and written treatment of the divine name, YHWH. In extant pre-Christian Jewish biblical manuscripts, the divine name is characteristically written in special ways intended to distinguish it from the surrounding text. . . .

The four earliest nomina sacra represent Christian reverence of God and Christ expressed in the special way these key terms were written in Christian texts. But in this desire to show reverence for divine names and titles in the way they are written out, we have a continuity in what we may call religious psychology between Jewish tradition and emerging Christian tradition. As Schuyler Brown noted, the four earliest words are more correctly nomina divina, terms that in early Christian devotion function somewhat analogously to the divine name in Jewish tradition
He goes on to discuss various theories of origin and then describes his own. Before you start wildly speculating about these phenomena, maybe you should read the tets you cite from instead of just quote mining them.
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Old 12-30-2011, 07:39 PM   #35
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You don't present any of the scholarship that contradicts your assumptions, you just ask questions that have been answered numerous times over as if no one has ever asked them before. Without presenting other opinions, which are without exception informed by far more scholarship and education than yours could ever be, you simply insist that your guesses are as good as theirs. As I've shown, it's not a guess what underlies XC. It unquestionably abbreviates χριστος, and you've not yet been able to address that point.

You wonder out loud where the nomina sacra come from, suggesting overseers of the scribal projects (whom you appear to have simply invented) commanded it, and suggesting it doesn't refer to Jesus or Christ.
Pachomius saw a "vision" in Alexandria c.324 CE and fled the ancient capital to establish multiple remote monastic settlements hundreds of miles up the Nile near modern Nag Hammadi. Tens of thousands followed him over the subsequent few decades. Most scholars conjecture that the Nag Hammadi Codices were manufactured in a Pachomian monastery near Nag Hammadi. They are C14 dated to the mid 4th century, a date corroborated by cartonage analysis and other means.


Some time ago it was that I gathered together A collation of resource notes on nomina sacra (sacred names). None of these articles are authored by myself, I just collected them and provided the appropriate attribution. The 6th article, Article 06: Fabulating Jesus, the Coptic Nomina Sacra, and intriguing questions is not my article. It was sourced (at the time) from another article that was then entitled Fabulating Jesus: Why Gnostic "Codes" Do Not Name the Historical Jesus. The google search for fabricating jesus seems to indicate the article is not longer active. The author of the article you cite as my "OPINION" is the author of Not in His Image: Gnostic Vision, Sacred Ecology, and the Future of Belief (or via: amazon.co.uk) [Paperback] John Lamb Lash.



Quote:
Before you start wildly speculating about these phenomena, maybe you should read the tets you cite from instead of just quote mining them.

Quote:
Originally Posted by John Lamb LASH


In my book "Not in His Image" I wrote:


In the Coptic Gnostic material
the names Jesus and Christ
are never written in full,
but indicated by code such as
the letters IS with a bar over them.
Scholars routinely fill in the blanks,


JESUS from IS making IS into I(eseo)S,
the Greek form of the Hebrew name Yeshua.

They do so with considerable poetic license,
for there is no textual evidence to support
the assumption that in Gnostic usage
IS indicated a historical person
named Ieseos, Jesus.

IS could as well be translated in another way:
I(asiu)S, giving the name Iasius, “the healer,”
a title rather than a common name.


But translators assume that IS
indicates Jesus of the New Testament.

In short, scholars do not allow us
the chance to consider that IS might indicate
anything else but a literal person
whose identity is predetermined.
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Old 12-30-2011, 08:30 PM   #36
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... I'm just astonished at your methods. ...
You get inured after a while.
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Old 12-30-2011, 08:57 PM   #37
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Maklelan

The paradox with mountainman is - as I am sure you will see - that he essentially accuses Eusebius of using the very methods for corrupting Christianity as mountainman uses to 'expose' him. No matter what you might say to demonstrate to Pete (= mountainman) that he is manipulating evidence it will fall on deaf ears because - strangely - Pete assumes that Eusebius did the same things in antiquity. It's a bizarre nihilistic exercise which will end up testing your patience.

To the best that I can determine Pete's methods serve as 'proof' that historical manipulations of facts can take place and ultimately will always overcome the real truth. The fact that Eusebius's alleged efforts led to a world religion that numbers in the billions today and Pete can't so much as find a single disciple after decades of efforts never makes any impression on Pete. I doubt anything else you will ever say will either.

I have found that engaging in any sort of conversation with Pete takes on the appearance of clubbing a seal high on angel dust or that story in the rabbinic literature about the teacher who hit the same Christian in the head with a hammer day after day (i.e. despite being bloodied he/it no pain and keeps coming back for more). As long as you don't lose your cool you will find that he will keep coming back for more day after day simply because he is convinced that by repeating the same series of untruths day after day the rest of the world will become hypnotized and immediately come over to accept his lies as truths.
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Old 12-30-2011, 09:06 PM   #38
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Pachomius saw a "vision" in Alexandria c.324 CE and fled the ancient capital to establish multiple remote monastic settlements hundreds of miles up the Nile near modern Nag Hammadi. Tens of thousands followed him over the subsequent few decades. Most scholars conjecture that the Nag Hammadi Codices were manufactured in a Pachomian monastery near Nag Hammadi. They are C14 dated to the mid 4th century, a date corroborated by cartonage analysis and other means.
Relevance?

Quote:
Originally Posted by mountainman View Post
Some time ago it was that I gathered together A collation of resource notes on nomina sacra (sacred names). None of these articles are authored by myself, I just collected them and provided the appropriate attribution. The 6th article, Article 06: Fabulating Jesus, the Coptic Nomina Sacra, and intriguing questions is not my article. It was sourced (at the time) from another article that was then entitled Fabulating Jesus: Why Gnostic "Codes" Do Not Name the Historical Jesus. The google search for fabricating jesus seems to indicate the article is not longer active. The author of the article you cite as my "OPINION" is the author of Not in His Image: Gnostic Vision, Sacred Ecology, and the Future of Belief (or via: amazon.co.uk) [Paperback] John Lamb Lash.
I apologize for misunderstanding. The portion of text I cited as your opinion is not in basic HTML, as are your other smaller quotes, which actually carry attribution of some kind. The link you place at the beginning and end of that portion of your site is broken, so I had no idea who wrote the portion not in basic HTML. Based on the informal prose, the content of the argument, and the naive methodologies, I figured it was yours. I was wrong.
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Old 12-30-2011, 09:28 PM   #39
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An interesting fact I did not know before a few minutes ago. In discussing the use of Chrestos among early Christians Judith Lieu (Christian identity in the Jewish and Graeco-Roman world p. 258):

Quote:
Hermas, who does not use the word 'Christian', can still see 'conversion' in terms of becoming 'useful' to God: Vis. III. 6. 7
The dating of Hermas is given by the Muratorian Canon as written during the reign of Pius I (= 142 - 154 CE). I think this reinforces the idea that the term Christianoi is later - i.e. mid-second century. The Latinized Greek is very unusual and likely presupposes an origin in Latin-speaking circles. If Christians originally identifies themselves as Christaioi or Christenoi why haven't these forms survived? I don't think that the use of Chrestos and Chrestoi are as marginalized and as ideosyncratic as you think they are. It is Christianoi which is the anomaly, albeit one which we have grown to take as second nature.

I think scholars underestimate the influence that Celsus had in defining 'Christianity' even though he was a hostile witness. Not a single Church Father mentions his work until Origen close to a century after itself publication yet most of the Fathers in between the True Word and Against Celsus draw inspiration from his work to counter the heresies even though the work itself is virulently hostile to the religion of Jesus. A very, very puzzling situation which is one of many odd things about the influence of this work.

As a non-Christian I was always puzzled from a young age why the religion doesn't bear the name of Jesus if Jesus was the founder of the group. Herodians, Caesarians, Marcionites, debe Jannai, Dositheans etc etc. but the great religion of Christianity takes such a generic terminology for itself (overlooking for a moment the unusual Latinized Greek form). Imagine the tradition of Sabbatai Zevi identifying itself as 'those of the messiah.' It's bizarre and it only seems unremarkable because most of you were born into the religion. It can be argued that Islam does not bear the name of its founder because of the careful manner in which this tradition learned to guard itself from those who 'exaggerated' Muhammad's greatness. The same caution cannot be said for Christianity.
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Old 12-30-2011, 11:55 PM   #40
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I decided to go through some other second century Church Fathers to see if they use the term 'christianoi' starting with Irenaeus. Not all of Irenaeuis's writings survive in Greek. Nevertheless the only reference to 'Christian' in all the surviving Greek material occurs in Book Four:

Quote:
And for this reason, indeed, when at this present time the law is read to the Jews, it is like a fable; for they do not possess the explanation of all things pertaining to the advent of the Son of God, which took place in human nature; but when it is read by the Christians [χριστιανῶ], it is a treasure, hid indeed in a field, but brought to light by the cross of Christ, and explained, both enriching the understanding of men, and showing forth the wisdom of God and declaring His dispensations with regard to man, and forming the kingdom of Christ beforehand, and preaching by anticipation the inheritance of the holy Jerusalem, and proclaiming beforehand that the man who loves God shall arrive at such excellency as even to see God, and hear His word, and from the hearing of His discourse be glorified to such an extent, that others cannot behold the glory of his countenance, as was said by Daniel: "Those who do understand, shall shine as the brightness of the firmament, and many of the righteous as the stars for ever and ever.'' Thus, then, I have shown it to be, if any one read the Scriptures. For thus it was that the Lord discoursed with, the disciples after His resurrection from the dead, proving to them from the Scriptures themselves "that Christ must suffer, and enter into His glory, and that remission of sins should be preached in His name throughout all the world." And the disciple will be perfected, and [rendered] like the householder, "who bringeth forth from his treasure things new and old." [Irenaeus AH 4.26.1]
I don't know what any of this means but if you would have told me that there is only one Christianoi reference in the Greek text of Irenaeus at the outset, I wouldn't have believed it. Moreover since most people think the books of Against Heresies were written in succession and a date of 190 CE for Book Four is a good guess, that's also surprising.

The passage is also interesting because it sounds like an orthodox response to typical gnostic interpretations of scripture. In other words, when the Christians (= the orthodox) read the OT new words come from the writings. It should be noted that the argument that 'new things' come from old words is also found in chapter 11 of the Samaritan Asatir one of the oldest surviving texts as a messianic prophesy.

Any religious Jew knows this reference from Daniel 12:3 as one of the most important in kabbalah

Quote:
And they that be wise (wə·ham·maś·ki·lîm) shall shine as the brightness (kə·zō·har) of the firmament and they that turn many to righteousness as the stars for ever and ever
Irenaeus however tells us that Daniel 12 was especially important to the followers of Mark (cf. AH 1.20.1). I think the sect was more Jewish than anything in orthodox Christianity.
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