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Old 06-01-2012, 12:30 AM   #1
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Default Does the νῦν in Irenaeus's List of Roman Bishops Prove that He Wrote Under Eleutheros

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Evarestus succeeded Clement, and Alexander succeeded Evarestus. Then Xystus, the sixth from the apostles, was appointed. After him Telesphorus, who suffered martyrdom gloriously, then Hyginus, then Pius, and after him Anicetus; Soter succeeded Anicetus, now in twelfth place from the apostles, Eleutherus holds the office of bishop (διαδεξαμενου τον Ανικητον Σωτηρος, νυν δωδεκατω τοπω τον της επισκοπης απο των αποστολων κατεχει κληρον Ελευθερος). In the same order and succession the tradition in the church and the preaching of the truth has descended from the apostles unto us.
I was just looking at the Greek and wondering why the νῦν has to mean 'now' in the sense of a temporal statement as opposed to simply the use of 'now' as the logical result of what precedes. In other words, Irenaeus is just saying that Eleutheros is twelfth because Soter was eleventh.
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Old 06-01-2012, 12:35 AM   #2
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I guess its the present tense of κατέχει. Don't know what I was thinking.
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Old 06-01-2012, 12:38 AM   #3
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"now" probably does mean "now" because "holds" is in the present tense. Why would you think differently?
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Old 06-01-2012, 04:50 AM   #4
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I have to learn Greek, but I better brush up on my English skills.
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Old 06-01-2012, 08:02 AM   #5
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now can be used in the logical sense - i.e. because a is 1 and b is 2 'now' we see that a + b = 3
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