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Old 02-24-2008, 08:57 PM   #211
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Good point. Word of mouth oral transmission and histories were effective to some extent, but can also result in some pretty wild tales. Truths that were not wanted for public consumption could also be spread and embellished.

Are they any proof that the stories were complete fabrications?
You seem to be assuming that there must be some truth to these stories, or that the proposition that they are complete fabrications has the burden of proof. But there is no reason to assume this. In particular, the apocryphal Acts are full of fanciful, supernatural events. I know of no one who thinks that they must embody some historical core.
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Old 02-24-2008, 09:04 PM   #212
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Are they any proof that the stories were complete fabrications?
We have two sets of stories. The canon - the one's bound by Constantine, and the apocrypha (non canonical) - the one's that were not bound. These two sets of stories have markedly different characteristics, the full nature of which has yet to be analysed coherently and consistently. If the first set is fiction, the second set is romantic fiction. The phrase "mutilated bible" (When referring to the common "BIBLE") refers to presentation of the first set as representative of the whole, which it is certainly not. In short, we need a political theory to sort the two sets out. I have had some ideas on that.

Best wishes,


Pete Brown

Yes. I understand the issues somewhat. The "selection" of the canon may very well have involved political or idealogical motivations. I would be interested in ideas on that.

Also, why is it assumed that the NT apocrypha are more than blown up here-say, attempts to aggrandize their messiah, or attempts to discredit the movement rather than complicated conspiracies. are problems with the simplest answers so severe that they had to be complicated?
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Old 02-24-2008, 09:04 PM   #213
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No, is not my position at all that Marcion is a fictional character, I am of the opinion that Marcion's history may have been distorted. My position is that the "memoirs" were anonymous, then the name "Paul" was added sometime after Justin's writings and a fictitious history was assembled called Acts of the Apostles to try to authenticate "Paul".
...some meat. Thanks!

Ok then, as I understand it, you assume Justin didn't know about Paul, because he never mentions him?

If so, in which of Justin's known writings would you expect to find Paul mentioned, and why?
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Old 02-24-2008, 09:05 PM   #214
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Klaus Schilling

You state this in the view of the Roman Catholic church.
Point of order, Klaus does not speak for the Roman Catholic Church viewpoint.

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So what about the eastern church, Coptics, and others? They would hold that the early church was the true catholic church and the Roman Catholics drifted away and became recognized as apostate by about the 10th century. The eastern churches then became the holders of the documents in the closest to original form, and would claim to have the most original theology.
The period under consideration here is well before the split between East and West.


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The gospels and epistles are largely about the philosophical differences between the Jews and what became the christians and did seem to originate in the general region (?)...perhaps as transition documents. Would you hold them as elaborate forgeries to further the political unity under the revised hellenist philosophy? If they are this, why could they not represent the collection of documents about the experiences of individuals in trying to further their views ... even if they are somewhat fantacized through different renditions?
I'm having trouble following this. It is true that the NT seems to be about differences, both theological, philosophical, and organizational, between early Christians and Jews, and is aimed at a political unity of various Christian factions, if I read you correctly. Are you asking why they could not also have some historical core?
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Old 02-25-2008, 01:00 AM   #215
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You state this in the view of the Roman Catholic church.
Point of order, Klaus does not speak for the Roman Catholic Church viewpoint.



The period under consideration here is well before the split between East and West.


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The gospels and epistles are largely about the philosophical differences between the Jews and what became the christians and did seem to originate in the general region (?)...perhaps as transition documents. Would you hold them as elaborate forgeries to further the political unity under the revised hellenist philosophy? If they are this, why could they not represent the collection of documents about the experiences of individuals in trying to further their views ... even if they are somewhat fantacized through different renditions?
I'm having trouble following this. It is true that the NT seems to be about differences, both theological, philosophical, and organizational, between early Christians and Jews, and is aimed at a political unity of various Christian factions, if I read you correctly. Are you asking why they could not also have some historical core?


East west differences started long before the final break and even perhaps to the first Nicene conference which is in the time period being discussed. So when Klaus mentioned the Roman Catholics, it sounded a little like he was strictly referencing the Roman Catholic doctrines, and I thought it was worth mentioning that they are distinct in ways from early times... just to verify. The eastern church view is often lost in the west.

Yes, I was suggesting/asking about substantiated views on existence or degree of an historic core and the basis as well.
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Old 02-25-2008, 03:25 AM   #216
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So when Klaus mentioned the Roman Catholics, it sounded a little like he was strictly referencing the Roman Catholic doctrines
as opposed to the Gnostic and Ebionic and Montanist etc. communities
who all had different writings, corresponding to completely different understandings of Jesus, whereas the NT writings are wholly Roman Catholic and may only be used to express their christology.
If other communities use the same NT writings but try to dissociate it from the Roman hierarchy and magisterate, they do so without any historical justification.

Klaus Schilling
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Old 02-25-2008, 05:14 AM   #217
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So are you saying there is a logos and these are all incarnate manifestations or examples... ?
they are all personifying representations of the Logos for didactical literary purposes.

The incarnation is a speciality of the Roman Catholic church.
It is not their specialty but just proof that heaven is for Catholics only in that each one of them has a story to tell as Jesus.

The Stoics will never find this Logos nor will the Christians or it could not be for Catholis only.
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Old 02-25-2008, 05:34 AM   #218
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they are all personifying representations of the Logos for didactical literary purposes.

The incarnation is a speciality of the Roman Catholic church. The Stoics have been looking for the perfectly wise man , the example of all virtues, as the Logos made human, for centuries, and Seneca resigned from this, but by taking a closer look at the messianic prophesies of the Septuagint, some Roman Stoics turned confident that the Septuagint foretells the cosmopolitan logos incarnate as the Messiah. Of course the real messianist Jews ,such as followers of Judas Golonites and Shimeon bar Kohba, did not intend the Messiah as a Cosmopolitan but as a perfect Jew, yet after the defeat of those figures it was easy for the Roman Stoics to say , even with scriptural backup, that the Jews didn't understand their Scripture, and did not recognise the true Messiah, and even though the Messiah was sent to them as the chosen people, they behaved as ungrateful as possible, thus were rightfully punished by God in the subsequent wars, and the tribal messianic promise was unvealed as a cosmopolitan gospel.

Klaus Schilling

You state this in the view of the Roman Catholic church. So what about the eastern church, Coptics, and others? They would hold that the early church was the true catholic church and the Roman Catholics drifted away and became recognized as apostate by about the 10th century. The eastern churches then became the holders of the documents in the closest to original form, and would claim to have the most original theology.
Catholicism is a living faith wherein the original form was only good then and where now Eastern is Eastern and Roman is Roman.

They are infallible to say only that they are in charge of their own destiny which has nothing to do with the age of the documents.
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Old 02-25-2008, 06:52 AM   #219
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Good point. Word of mouth oral transmission and histories were effective to some extent, but can also result in some pretty wild tales. Truths that were not wanted for public consumption could also be spread and embellished.

Are they any proof that the stories were complete fabrications?
You seem to be assuming that there must be some truth to these stories, or that the proposition that they are complete fabrications has the burden of proof. But there is no reason to assume this. In particular, the apocryphal Acts are full of fanciful, supernatural events. I know of no one who thinks that they must embody some historical core.

I assume nothing. Therefore the possibility that there is some historic core in canon, and to some degree apocrypha, is extant, and so various explanations can be examined including the possibility that they are in some way authentic.

The burden of proof lies with those that want to understand without bias. Proofs are for mathematics and speculators, and frauds. Absolute proof of these stories is elusive at best and practically impossible. A rational, scientific aproach can help gain insight. If one seeks the truth behind a matter, they will seek understanding of the material, seek all possible explanations for their observations, posit their theories, and seek for ways to discredit them as well as arguments to support them (notice I did not say prove). This means they have to examine the issue from both (or more) sides even if one seems implausible to them.

Few, I would think find the NT apocrypha credible. That is one reason they are not considered canon. Political and theological reasons are also likely factors. The "canonized" and some other sources are less fanciful and more likely to reflect some actual people and events, even if they are massaged and edited for a purpose.
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Old 02-25-2008, 06:58 AM   #220
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No, is not my position at all that Marcion is a fictional character, I am of the opinion that Marcion's history may have been distorted. My position is that the "memoirs" were anonymous, then the name "Paul" was added sometime after Justin's writings and a fictitious history was assembled called Acts of the Apostles to try to authenticate "Paul".
...some meat. Thanks!

Ok then, as I understand it, you assume Justin didn't know about Paul, because he never mentions him?

If so, in which of Justin's known writings would you expect to find Paul mentioned, and why?
I would expect "Paul" to be mentioned in First Apology or Dialogue with Trypho. If Marcion was using the "memoirs of the apostles" to propagate the phantom, the non-crucified Jesus, son of another Greater God, and since Justin mentioned Marcion, I would expect this writer to make some comment about "Paul's" epistles being corrupted by Marcion.

It must be remembered that the revelation of the crucified Christ, son of the God of the Jews and born of Mary, was the most significant theme and core doctrine of the "Paul" of the Epistles, the very OPPOSITE to Marcion's non-crucified phantom, unborned, the son of another Greater God, not of the Jews.

It should be remembered that, based on Eusebius, the Churches had in their possesion these Pauline epistles about 100 years before Marcion's propagation of the phantom, and "Paul" would be a direct witness and contemporary of the apostles of Jesus the crucified, so it seems highly unlikely to me that Marcion could so easily corrupt and manipulate documents in the Churches' possession upto 100 years and written by "Paul", probably the greatest missionary of the 1st century.

Tertullian's report of Marcion is very problematic, the Churches had about 100 years of confirmed history of "Paul" and the crucified Christ and Marcion, excommunicated from the very Church, corrupted and manipulated the history of Churches using documents and known historical figures of the Church to do so.

Just imagine, the Churches claimed Jesus was real, born of Mary, he was crucified, witnessed by the apostles, and that Paul, known by the apostles and the Churches, was the most significant missionary in their early history, yet Tertullian claimed, and wants his readers to believe that Marcion, using the very gospel and epistles of the Church, in their possesion for about 100 years, propagated a non-crucified Christ, not born of Mary or of anyone, and who was not from the god of the Jews.

I find Tertullian's story preposterous.

I propose that the Church had no real history, as described by the NT and Tertullian, and that up to Justin Martyr's extant writings of around the middle of the 2nd century, the "memoirs of the apostles" were anonymous. And in my opinion, Marcion could only be successful in undermining the core fundamental beliefs of the Church if they had no history.

Marcion did indeed undermine the Church, according to Tertullian, the Church, therefore had no real history before Marcion.

Marcion's doctrine was that Jesus was never born, never crucified, and was never from the God of the Jews. The Church may have responded with the fictitious history called Acts of the Apostles and fabricated the names for the anonymous "memoirs of the apostles".
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