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#741 | |
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#742 | |
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Where is your supporting evidence that a second century origin of Christianity is unworkable? There is no workable evidence for a Jesus cult in the 1st century just presumptions from silence. A second century thesis is far more workable because it is the only theisis which is compatible with the present actual recovered dated evidence. It is clear that the Epistula Apostolorum is a source of fiction and is contradicted by stories of Jesus in the very Canon. And further, there is no manuscript of the Epistula Apostolorum that has been found and dated to the 2nd century. It is virtually impossible to show that that Epistula Apostolorum was composed in the 2nd century when the earliest copies are from the 4th century or later. There is nothing in the Epistula Apostolrum that must have been composed in the 2nd century when the very title of the writing exposes it as fiction. If the Epistula Apostolorum was written in the 2nd century it is not likely to have been written by the Apostles of Jesus who supposedly lived at the time of Pilate when Tiberius was governor. It is expected that the supposed Apostles of Jesus would have been dead in the 2nd century if they did live. It is not acceptable to use known anonymous sources of fiction which are unattested to date the Pauline writings. Please name any Apologetic writer of antiquity who made refence to the Epistula Apostolorum or acknowledge it at any time before the 4th century or claimed the Second Coming would be 120-150 years AFTER Pentecost. The Epistula Apostolorum appears to be unknown by the Jesus cult of the 2nd century. |
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#743 | ||
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Another mashup, this time in gJohn: The anointment in Bethany by Mary, the sister of Martha (Jn 12:1-8): 12:1 "... Jesus came to Bethany ..." 12:2 "... Martha served, while Lazarus was among those reclining at the table with him." 12:3 "Then Mary took about a pint of pure nard, an expensive perfume; she poured it on Jesus' feet and wiped his feet with her hair. ..." It appears to be a conflation of: a) Lk 10:38-42: at the home of "Martha" and her sister "Mary" (but NOT specified in Bethany, and NO anointment here) b) Mk 14:3-8: when "reclining at the table", anointment in "Bethany" by a woman, with "pure nard" an "expensive perfume" (but NOT on the feet (on the head instead), NO "Martha" and "Mary", and NO wiping with the woman's hair) c) Lk 7:36-38: a woman "poured it on Jesus' feet and wiped his feet with her hair" (but NOT specified in Bethany, and NO "Martha" and "Mary", and NO "pure nard") Cordially, Bernard |
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#744 | |
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The Gospel of Peter is basically a forgery or a false attributed authorship. The Gospel of Peter must be a source of fiction and not historically reliable even if it was written c 190 CE because as the title implies it could NOT have been composed by the Apostle Peter the supposed actual disciple of Jesus, born of a Ghost and a Virgin. In any event, the author of the Gospel of Peter wrote Nothing of Saul/Paul or his revealed teachings of the resurrected Jesus or the Pauline letters to Seven Churches. There is no mention that Peter was in Rome in the Gospel of Peter. After all, Peter and Paul were supposed to have been in Rome before the death of Nero. The Gospel of Peter supports the argument that the Pauline letters and teachings were unknown in the 2nd century. The earliest dated manuscript of the Gospel of Peter is even later than P 46 [the Pauline letters]. |
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#745 | |
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Cordially, Bernard |
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#746 | |
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In Church History 3, the Gospel of Peter is claimed to be the work of Heretics and are works of Fiction.
Church History 3.25.6 Quote:
It must also be taken into consideration that the Gospel of Peter was so titled to deliberately mis-lead the reader if it was composed after the supposed Peter was long dead. The Gospel of Peter cannot even date itself--it is a forgery or falsely attributed to Peter who himself is a product of fiction. |
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#747 |
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Considering that the mention of Paul evokes Acts, though the Epistola does not identify Pauline teachings among the rest of the *mishmash*, does this suggest that the author only heard about Saul's revelation together with other stories he heard, i.e. from GJohn, and did not even take it all seriously?? If someone 1000 years from now came across the NT along with the screenplay of Jesus Christ Superstar, would he think that the script was part of the religious environment of Christianity?
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So far, an examination of the NT Canon has exposed that there are NO claims at all that Saul/Paul wrote LETTERS to anyone or any Church before c 62 CE.
The supposed first non-Canonical source to mention Paul by name and that he wrote to the Corinthians is a letter from the Church of Rome attributed to Clement when there was a Great Dissension of the Corinth Church. According to Ireneaus in "Against Heresies" Clement was Bishop of Rome at that time and did Reply to the Corinth Church. The supposed Clement Letter must be an historical marker for the bishopric of Clement. In other words, there can be NO mistake when Clement was Bishop. All Church writers, all those of the Church of Rome, all those of the Church of Corinth, all those of the Church of Lyons, all the Heretics who heard, read or saw Clement's letter must know the time period of his bishopric. If the Great Dissension occured 95 CE then it should have known that Clement was Bishop sometime around that time period. According to Eusebius in Church History 3 Clement was bishop of Rome for 9 years c 92-101 CE Quote:
The list of Bishops of Rome was fabricated at least up to the time of Irenaeus. The Clement letter was Invented sometime sometime after the end of the 4th century.
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#750 |
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Stephan your posts ramble on and on, like a fillibuster, so I usually skip over them.
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