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Old 01-20-2009, 09:13 PM   #121
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The analysis of Carrier represented in that paragraph I think clears up some of the confusion (maybe), and I am not buying it. Every author, that is everyone in the world who writes, writes for a deliberate reason. Does it follow that everybody's writing has no regard to the truth? Of course not, because the truth is typically much more persuasive than an outright lie, and so the true is the best baseline for any effective sell. It seems a bad idea to start with the assumption that Christian authors are enormously creative storytellers who can effectively lie about anything.
There is no argument in the passage that "everybody's writing has no regard for the truth."

And again, if you start with the assumption that Christian authors are not liars or cannot create stories, then the criterion of embarrassment would still be irrelevant.

If you believe from the start that the crucifixion did occur, the criterion of embarrassment is irrelevant, you already believe the story.

And even if you do not believe the crucifixion story from the start, the criterion of embarrassment cannot resolve the matter, it is irrelevant.

For somebody interested in historiography questions, you sure do talk in absolute terms as if you were born yesterday.

First, the crucifixtion is played up by most New Testament authors as something that only LOOKED like a defeat for Jesus, but which was in fact his victory over sin. So the crucifixion, contributing to the apologetic purpose of the NT authors, does NOT qualify as the sort of embarrassing detail the scholars and historians are talking about when they say this criteria of embarrassment helps to make probability judgments on the level of truth in ancient claims.

Second, since you need a working real example of a genuinely embarrassing detail, Paul admitted that not everybody in his day accepted him as an apostle.

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1 Corinthians 9:2
2 If to others I am not an apostle, at least I am to you; for you are the seal of my apostleship in the Lord.
Since he did not credit their unbelief in this case to the devil or plain stupidity, his statement is simple and yet embarrassing. He'd know that if his followers felt his claims were true, they'd be asking him why doesn't every Christian trust his apostleship, which could generate blows to integrity to himself. Since I don't see how this admission of Paul contributed to his apologetic purpose, it is more likely to be true. Nobody, except you, is claiming that this criteirion 'resolves' any issue, but only makes resolution toward one particular hypothesis, more favorable.
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Old 01-20-2009, 09:19 PM   #122
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The analysis of Carrier represented in that paragraph I think clears up some of the confusion (maybe), and I am not buying it. Every author, that is everyone in the world who writes, writes for a deliberate reason. Does it follow that everybody's writing has no regard to the truth? Of course not, because the truth is typically much more persuasive than an outright lie, and so the true is the best baseline for any effective sell. It seems a bad idea to start with the assumption that Christian authors are enormously creative storytellers who can effectively lie about anything.
The vast majority of narrative stories are fiction. There is nothing wrong at all with writing fiction. Do you think that all fictional stories are evil lies. Why should we start with the assumption that the authors of the gospels intended to write history and not fiction when we have lots of evidence of fiction and no evidence of history?
Yes, you propose a valid objection that most haven't seen. Christian apologetics has been successful at least in getting people to think we should first assume the gospels are what the conservative evangelicals say they are, and only then to discuss whether there be evidence that they are something else. In fact, the idea that the gospels are totally historically reliable never deserved to be given the prominent place of presupposition.
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Old 01-20-2009, 09:29 PM   #123
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aa, I may be an asshole saying this, but I have decided that I won't gain much knowledge from arguing with you, so I will generally not respond to what you are saying. I am just giving you a heads up in case you don't want to waste your time with me or whatever.
This is just a discussion, just put forward your position and state clearly why you hold such a position.

But, in any event, I have gained a lot by reading your posts.

You seem to think that the criterion of embarrassment has some value in resolving texts where the veracity is unknown, I just think it is useless and illogical based on the fact that any texts that is actually fiction, unknown to the reader, but yet embarrassing, would be deemed true or non-fiction, if the criterion of embarrassment was applied.
Nope, no historian would deem some account true just because it had embarrassing details. Your understanding of this criterion is monstrously warped, you act like historians believe just any and every testimony which contains details embarrassing to their authors. That's not how it works, it is less forceful than this, since historiography is not concrete science.

On the other hand, you don't have the right to assume the criteria would lead us to believe false accounts, since whether the account is false is precisely the question that eludes us, for which we have to apply admittedly subjective criteria to help create a cumulative case, one of those critieria having to do with embarrassment.

If your neighbor accuses your faithful wife of 30 years, of adultery, you have the perfect rational right to doubt that testimony, and you'd have been rationally justified even if evidence arises later to show that she did indeed committ her first act of infidelity. The fact that we held a false view, doesn't automatically mean we were stupid or gullible to hold that view.

The hazard of trusting an ancient account which is ultimately false, is part of the job of the historian, who does not have the convenience of going back in time to compare the account with the real events, who thus must use tests to make probability judgments about the historical trustworthiness of ancient authors and their stories.
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Old 01-20-2009, 09:29 PM   #124
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Nobody, except you, is claiming that this criteirion 'resolves' any issue, but only makes resolution toward one particular hypothesis, more favorable.
My claim is that the criterion of embarrassment resolves NOTHING, it turns fiction into historical facts.

Some people born yesterday don't realise that.
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Old 01-20-2009, 09:33 PM   #125
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The analysis of Carrier represented in that paragraph I think clears up some of the confusion (maybe), and I am not buying it. Every author, that is everyone in the world who writes, writes for a deliberate reason. Does it follow that everybody's writing has no regard to the truth? Of course not, because the truth is typically much more persuasive than an outright lie, and so the true is the best baseline for any effective sell. It seems a bad idea to start with the assumption that Christian authors are enormously creative storytellers who can effectively lie about anything.
If truth was the most effective baseline for any effective sell, we'd expect to see less con artists and less monkeys on TBN wowing their gullible rich audience with their circus stunts.

You fail to consider that lying has a very solid history of helping effectively sell stuff!

As far as the Christian authors being creative storytellers, their wholesale slaughter of Old Testament passages in the attempt to show how their beliefs or doctrines were prefigured thereby, and the fact that this nonsense is still hotly defended by serious bible scholars today, is enough to show that, however stupid their ideas were, they knew it would work well enough, and so it did.
I think you are right, and I don't want you to misunderstand. I actually think that a very significant portion of the gospels are lies. But you can't sell something if your words have absolutely no relation to observable reality.
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Old 01-20-2009, 09:45 PM   #126
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I'm not home so I'm witing this rather imprecisely, no references to book/chapter/verses, but I think most here will recognise the references.

I think it is Price who notes that "Mark" denigrates the disciples as not understanding the 'reality' of JC, his actions and mission.

Prices suggests that this at least partly a literary device to allow the disciples to ask, in their ignorance, questions of JC that are in reality to allow JC to explain answers to the readers.

They are the 'straight' men in a hero/sidekick duo.

So we have the disciples being portrayed in a poor light for literary purposes not because the incidents wre necessarily real and historical.

It could be claimed, via the criterion of embarrassment, that such incidents are real and historical because they denigrate the disciples, one disciple Peter? is called 'spawn of satan, are therefore embarassing and must be real. But that would ignore the literary function of the stories.
No historian would continue leaning on the critiera of embarrassment to help bolster their belief that a story was true, once you demonstrated to their satisfaction that the embarrassment was part of the apologetic purpose of the author.

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In each of these cases we are seeing incidents change in their purpose for ploemic/propaganda purposes, historicity is irrelevant, the message is in the politics.
If you satisfied a historian that the message was political, then the incident are contributing to a political purpose of the author, and he would discontinue reliance on the embarrassing stuff.

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Is it embarassing that 2 of the disciples are portrayed as ambitious and wanting to be in the inner circle in heaven and are castigated by JC for such?
Not if their stupidity creates a circumstance that allows the story hero to correct them.

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If some, whoever, whenever, consider that to be embarrassing, at least for the image of the disciples the 2 in particular, does that may the story historical?
Yes, but it's difficult to believe that ANYTHING "embarrassing" incident reported in the bible, was reported without apologetic intent. All embarrassing incidents help the author ingrain the moral story in the originally intended hearers heads.

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Some apparently thought so because in a later gospel the words of the 2 are instead laid at the feet of their mother.

Which story, if either, is true?
Subjective judgment call, this might be showing a corrupt oral tradition too.

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Of what help is the criterion of embarrassment in trying to decide such?
The definition should have explained it. In terms of likelihood, authors aren't likely to invent embarrassing details, therefore, absent some apologetic purpose for such embarrassing details, they are more likely representing truth.

In short, when people lie, they usually do it to help support their agenda, not to make themselves look less believable.

For example, I've said for years that the continuous complaining of the Exodus-Israelites, so shortly after seeing monster-miracles, defies belief. Do they therefore fulfill the criteria of embarrassment? Not at all, their unbelievable complaining in the face of miracles affords the Exodus author numerous opportunities to dramatize Moses' rebuke to them, an obvious literary tactic of drama that is used in all hollywood sitcoms, namely, making the dumb people unbelievably dumb so their correction will seem more dramatic. The complaining Israelites were embarrassing to Moses, not to the Exodus-author, so this "embarrassment" doesn't fulfill the meaning of the word as intended when historians talk about the "criterion of embarrassment"
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Old 01-20-2009, 09:54 PM   #127
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The thing about the failed prophecy was actually the primary argument that brought me from the myth-Jesus belief to the historical-Jesus belief. The presence of embarrassing elements can draw evidence toward accuracy, and the lack of embarrassing elements where we otherwise may expect them can draw evidence toward fiction. I project that theory from my intuition, but I don't have solid evidence for it because only a few materials exist that are presented as accurate are known to be primarily fiction, and I haven't studied them.
So, it was your intuition and not the criterion of embarrassment that made you switch position. And you are even claiming that you have no solid evidence for your intuition.
That's why he called you an asshole. We are talking about historiography here, which any poster who deserves to post knows is not a concrete science guaranteeing anything nor providing "solid evidence". Yet you tromp through this discussion as if you couldn't know what we meant if God himself screamed it at you.

You will stop being an asshole the day you quit including such absolutist language in discussions about criteria that were never presented as absolute in the first place.

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Now, how can you claim that the words of Jesus as written was actually spoken by Jesus, when it could have been the words of the author himself?
Neither position can be claimed absolutely. On the specific issue of whether Jesus said those words, or whether the author just put them ficitiously in his mouth, I'd say the apologetic purpose of the author makes his report totally suspect.

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The criterion of embarrassment cannot help you if the Jesus story was total fiction,
Fallacy of begging the quesiton, you don't have the luxery of knowing whether the Jesus story is total fiction before you apply criteria of historicity to it. or may you are the only member here who can go back in time to watch the events for yourself?

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that is, if the story was fabricated by an unknown writer who made up the story about the so-called prophecy.
Indeed, unless you can come up with a way to show that the failed prophecies of Jesus contribute to the apologetic purpose of the author, the failed prophecies are the last thing dishonest inventors of "truth" would want to include in their story, so failed prophecies have a greater claim to historicity than those "fulfilled" prophecies, which certainly advance their agenda, which were also more likely written after the fact.

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You should realise that your intuition has no truth value or historical validity without evidence.
unless the intuition was based on reliable criteria of historicity.
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Old 01-20-2009, 10:04 PM   #128
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But, it is a well known fact that people fabricate embarrassing stories about themselves to gain sympathy, to make others believe their stories are true or to destroy or severly damage other peoples' characters.
That would mean the embarrassing bit contributed to the apologetic purpose of the author, which means those particular embarrassments weren't the stor of embarrassments historians and scholars are talking about when they talk about this criterion.

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Now, to claim there are embarrassing material in the NT without even showing that the events did actually occur is counter-productive.
Can you show whether or not the events occured, apart from criteria of historicity that are supposed to DO that job?

What, do you have a videotape from the first century you can pop in your vcr to show, apart from criteria of historicity, that the events as told in the bible either did or didn't happen as written? JESUS DUDE!

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So, was there really some called Jesus who actually made a prophecy that did not come true or was it the author who fabricated Jesus and the prophecy?
The criteria of embarrassment says people are likely to lie to make themselves look GOOD (fulfilled prophecy), not BAD (false prophecy).

Since Jesus' promise of a 2nd coming failed, we have the perfect right to believe this doesn't contribute to the author's agenda and is therefore a more objective bit of evidence than some other thing that DOES promote his purpose.

It's real simple, and I'm starting to think you know better, you are just acting stupid to stimulate thread activity.

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Not everything in the NT appears embarrassing
,

Did anybody say everything in the NT WAS embarrassing?

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or perhaps most things about Jesus do not appear to be embarrassing,
Your first lesson in historiography 101, you need to be a man and make your own subjective judgment calls.

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so it is your view that the only thing that is known is that Jesus made a false prediction, and every thing else is false since there are not embarrassing?
And there you go with the false black-and-white thinking again. No skeptic says the non-embarrassing stuff is false, only that it has less claim to objectivity because non-embarrassing stuff tends to support the author's agenda, and supporting agendas is right where an author is more likely to lie about something.

It's a judgment call on level of probable truth. You'd probably agree with the critierion if you dropped your false view of it and realized it as a mere helpful tool, in a list of other tools, that helps one make a subjective cumulative case for historicity.
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Old 01-20-2009, 10:13 PM   #129
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So, how long does a "generation" last? One year, 70 years, 100 years? And where was the story written?

Are you claiming that no-one can believe something that is false about you while you are alive?
The obvious purpose of the authors was to say things about Jesus that would motivate people to trust his claims. Unless you can defeat that pretty solid bit of obviousness, they are least likely to knowingly attribute failed prophecies to Jesus. That's the job of the skeptic, who wants people to STOP believing in Jesus. As such, you'd need to explain why 4 ancient authors, with obvious motives to make people trust Jesus, would knowingly attribute false prophecies to him.

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I can tell people that ApostateAbe predicted that the world would end in this generation, some people might believe if I tell them that you have predicted many thiings before that came true. I can tell them you successfully predicted 911, hurricane Katrina, the tsunami in Asia and the last earthquake in Japan. And I will tell them I met you in the jungles of South America.
And if there was no other evidence to back up your claims (such as is the case for gospel claims about Jesus), we'd have to apply critiera to your story about Abe to help us determine what was more or less likely true in your account.

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You just cannot show that anything in the NT is true, and the criterion of embarrassment, cannot magically make things that are false, unknown to you, become true.
You involve absolutist thinking, in a discipline (historiography) which nobody claimed could yield absolute conclusions. We have to decide whether you really are this stupid or just pretending because your bus driver passed up the pharmacy.
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Old 01-20-2009, 10:17 PM   #130
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So please show how a story that was fiction, unknown to a reader, with embarrassing elements could be confirmed to be fiction using the criterion of embarrassment.
The rules of historicity don't allow you to "confirm" anything about such an ancient story. However, rank amateurs have been confirmed to slow down progressive discussions about historicity because they are willingly deaf to everybody else telling them that the rules of historicity don't allow for absolutist talk, such as asking for "confirmation".
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