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Old 09-20-2005, 11:17 AM   #171
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Pilate
Are you saying that those inscriptions were available to Paul? And therefore, Paul got that word from those inscriptions?
No I'm suggesting that the word was probably reasonably widespread in ordinary speech but not usually found in literary works.
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Are you saying that Paul wrote at about the time of Jesus' birth? If so, what evidence do you have?
I personally accept the traditional date of Paul, I was continuing with the question as to whether a much earlier date of Paul is possible and claiming that a very early date is incompatible with Paul using Wisdom of Solomon.
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4 Maccabees was written sometime around 20 to 54 CE (perhaps during the reign of Caligula: 37-41 CE).
What did you find in Hebrews that came from 4 Maccabees?
Looking at it again I'm not sure how strong the links are but for example Hebrews 12:1-2 may be influenced by 4 Maccabees 17:9-10 and similar passages.

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Old 09-20-2005, 12:32 PM   #172
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The other issue is that APhThARSIA incorruption
Liddell and Scott indicate that the word was used by Epicurus some centuries before Wisdom.

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Originally Posted by andrewcriddle
and ThEIOTHS divine nature are also found in the Wisdom of Solomon which may well be a more ilkely source for Paul than Philo.

(NOTE 1: If you accept a/ that Paul used the Wisdom of Solomon and that b/ the references to Images of Foreign Rulers in that work implies a date after the victory of Ocatavius/Augustus over Anthony and Cleopatra then this implies a date for Paul's work no earlier than the very end of the 1st century BCE.)
If I understand correctly, this line of reasoning rests on the possibility that a word Qeioths was specifically borrowed by Paul from Wisdom -- afQarsia may also have been borrowed, but there is little reason to consider it: neither seem to provide any context in their placing in Wisdom which relate to Paul's thought; it is merely that the particular word is used, though I'd want something a little more convincing. It is extremely tenuous, isn't it? Why would wisdom have been the source and not that they both got it from the same sort of place that the Wisdom writer got it. Paul could easily be getting his ideas of wisdom from other sources. 1 Cor 12:8's references to spirit/wisdom/understanding seem to come from Isaiah. (A worst case scenario would be that Wisdom got it from Paul! I think they are likely to have been independent.)


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Old 09-20-2005, 12:54 PM   #173
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Originally Posted by spin
If I understand correctly, this line of reasoning rests on the possibility that a word Qeioths was specifically borrowed by Paul from Wisdom -- afQarsia may also have been borrowed, but there is little reason to consider it: neither seem to provide any context in their placing in Wisdom which relate to Paul's thought; it is merely that the particular word is used, though I'd want something a little more convincing. It is extremely tenuous, isn't it? Why would wisdom have been the source and not that they both got it from the same sort of place that the Wisdom writer got it. Paul could easily be getting his ideas of wisdom from other sources. 1 Cor 12:8's references to spirit/wisdom/understanding seem to come from Isaiah. (A worst case scenario would be that Wisdom got it from Paul! I think they are likely to have been independent.)


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I agree that the purely linguistic parallels between Paul and Wisdom are too weak to support dependency on their own.

What I meant (and I'm sorry I was too brief to be clear) is that there are quite strong parallels between for example the claims in Wisdom about the connection of idolatry and moral corruption and Romans 1:19-32.

These parallels indicate IMO that Paul had read Wisdom. Hence if we need a source for this Pauline vocabulary there is no need to bring in Philo for words also in Wisdom because we (on other grounds) think Paul knew Wisdom and it is much more doubtful whether he knew Philo.

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Old 09-20-2005, 01:16 PM   #174
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What I meant (and I'm sorry I was too brief to be clear) is that there are quite strong parallels between for example the claims in Wisdom about the connection of idolatry and moral corruption and Romans 1:19-32.
Are these parallels in any way linguistic in nature or are simply we dealing with similarity of ideas?


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Old 09-20-2005, 08:32 PM   #175
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Originally Posted by andrewcriddle
Looking at it again I'm not sure how strong the links are but for example Hebrews 12:1-2 may be influenced by 4 Maccabees 17:9-10 and similar passages.

Andrew Criddle
What did the writer of Hebrews take from 4 Maccabees?
And are you implying that Paul wrote the lettter to Hebrews?
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Old 09-22-2005, 08:15 AM   #176
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And if I recall, 4th Maccabbees is usually dated as late as the 2nd century CE. Eusebius believes Josephus wrote it, but I wander if Peter Kirby has enough time to do a comparative analysis stastically on that.
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Old 09-22-2005, 01:28 PM   #177
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IIIUC the similarities of passages in Paul such as Romans 1: 17-32 to passages in Wisdom of Solomon are more a matter of similar ideas than a matter of shared distinctive vocabulary.

(And no of course I don't think that Paul wrote Hebrews, I just mentioned in passing the possible link between Hebrews and 4 Maccabees.)

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Old 09-22-2005, 01:40 PM   #178
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One piece of evidence for pre-Marcionite use of Paul is the claim by Origen that Basilides (who is almost certainly earlier than Marcion) used Romans to support reincarnation.

Origen Commentary on Romans
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But Basilides, missing the fact that this passage must be understood to refer to natural law has related the Apostle's statement to irrelevant blasphemous tales; on the basis of this saying of the Apostle's he tries to defend the doctrine of reincarnation, namely the idea that souls get transferred from one body to another. He says "Indeed the Apostle has said [Romans 7:9] 'I was once alive apart from the law' at some time or other. That is before I came into this body I lived in the kind of body that is not subject to the law; the body of a domestic animal or a bird"
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Old 09-22-2005, 01:41 PM   #179
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I think, summing up so far, that we haven't come very far in the stated task of dating Paul from scratch.

We have these proposed indicators:

1) the conjecture that the Aretas mentioned by Paul in 2 Cor 11:32 was Aretas IV and not the only known possessor of Damascus, Aretas III 100 years earlier.

2) the suggestion that the mention of the house of Caesar (taken to be part of Paul's original work in a troubled text which gives the impression of being an edition of various efforts) in Phil 4:21, dates Paul in the 1st c. CE so that the Aretas in #1 must be the Fourth.

3) Paul may show knowledge of the Wisdom of Solomon, a work that may be aware of Augustus and Anthony, if so Paul is from after the writing of Wisdom.


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Old 09-23-2005, 08:03 AM   #180
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Default How do we date the Pauline corpus from scratch?

Are not the dates of composition and the dates of release entirely different matters?
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