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Old 09-18-2011, 06:40 PM   #51
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Originally Posted by PhilosopherJay View Post
So we have good evidence for at least three forgeries, in the John passage, the TF and the James passage, which seems to have taken place from the time of Clement of Alexandria (c. 200) to Jerome (c. 400).
The three have something in common: They all bear markings of non-Christian authorship:

1. The TF--handled in the OP.
2. The JTB passage is very different from the gospel accounts.
3. The James passage (from Jerome) gives no credit to Jesus for anything, as far as we know.
4. The current James passage mentions Christ in passing only.

None of these show evidence of a Christian having interpolated 'whole cloth' positions that bolster a pro-orthodox position regarding Jesus. This fact alone is the strongest argument for either a 'clever' initial interpolator or Josephus himself, and in the first 2 above an interpolator probably added a line or two.

What is striking about the 'clever' initial interpolator is the lack of any pro-Jesus statements in the JTB(where he is not even mentioned) and James. This fact alone argues for a non-Christian hand, and for authenticity for those passages. And if all of Josephus except for the TF is arguably authentic to Josephus, or a non-Christian hand, then this should be taken into consideration when examining the TF. And, if the TF has evidence of a Josephan core, which it does, we have no examples within all of Josephus, from which to conclude that the core was not authentic.



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An alternative explanation that I have proposed before is that there is really only one forger - Eusebius. He forged the changes to the text of Josephus and than forged references to them in the text of Clement and Origen. However, he wasn't quite sure how clever or blunt he should be. He kept changing his mind, making changes and then sometimes restoring the original text when he saw that things didn't make sense, but leaving the forged references in the other works. He didn't bother to change them, thinking that they would just be puzzled over as unexplained mysteries. It would even make him look wiser than Clement and Origen.

We can call this the "Master Forger Hypothesis" in opposition to the "Multiple Forgeries Hypothesis."
While possible, this is a highly unconvincing argument because it requires sometimes clever, but mostly stupid, sloppy and inconsistent multiple interpolations. It could be right, but it is much more parsimonious to conclude what I have above: The core of all the Christian-related material is Josephan, and a Christian hand--perhaps Eusebius--added a line or two to the TF, maybe one line to JTB, and maybe the 'called Christ' reference in the James passage.
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Old 09-18-2011, 06:55 PM   #52
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The Slavonic Josephus nativity story is placed prior to the 15th year of Herod the Great, ie prior to 25 b.c. (counting from 40 b.c.)
Ah, that I have not found. I'll check it out.


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Ted, I have no problem if the TF, minus it's christian additions, was originally in Antiquities. (wishful thinking would not translate that story into historical fact). However, by all accounts, the TF was not quoted until the time of Eusebius.
So many here find this to be a compelling argument. I need to research this further. I'd like to see a reply from someone here to Price's comments (which quote research by Roger Pearce).


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Consequently, one has to deal with a later insertion, interpolation into Antiquities. Who did it? Eusebius most likely. Motive? Two fold. 1) give the gospel JC a historical veneer. 2) put an end to all the talk re that early crucifixion in the 7th year of Tiberius, 21 c.e. Not just talk, not just argument - move the damn story - and put it in Antiquities and claim that Josephus had the crucifixion in the 12th year of Tiberius (Josephus, in Antiquities, is ambiguous re dating Pilate anyway) - and give it a new accolade 'he was the christ'.
Ok, I'll check out the date issue.

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Well, for one, the Slavonic Josephus wonder-doer does not have a name.....
The internet version I read had a name later on--Jesus.
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Old 09-18-2011, 07:02 PM   #53
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Price strawmans by saying MJ says because it has "some" forgery it is not evidence. The standard is not what Price says "MJ says" but what the TF says. Again, Price = distraction.
Who is "MJ"?


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Josephus on Jesus
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Testimonium Flavianum (Koine Greek)

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1 - Now there was about this time Jesus

Could be

2 - a wise man

Could be

3 - if it be lawful to call him a man

Is this clearly forged or not Ted? What do you think. Not what do you think Price thinks.

4 - for he was a doer of wonderful works

"wonderful works" implies miracles. Now Josephus does use the same word for Moses and Elijah. How often does Josephus describe contemporaries as miracle workers Ted? "Mark", the original Gospel, has a major theme of Jesus being the successor of Moses and Elijah as evidenced by his continuation of their wonderful works. Is it more likely for Josephus Jew to make this connection or Mr. Christian?



Joseph

ErrancyWiki
If you'd like to argue against Price's arguments in his absence, feel free:

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a. Now there was about this time, Jesus

The digression and introductory phrase are typical of Josephus. As noted by Steve Mason, "[t]he opening phrase 'about this time' is characteristic of his language in this part of Antiquities, where he is weaving together distinct episodes into a coherent narrative (cf. Ant. 17.19; 18.39, 65, 80; 19.278)." (Mason, Josephus and the New Testament, page 171). Additionally, the use of the simple name "Jesus" favours Josephan authorship. A Christian would be more likely to use the term "Jesus Christ" or "Christ Jesus. In all of Ignatius' seven authentic letters he refers to "Jesus Christ" 112 times, "Christ Jesus" 12 times, "Christ" 4 times, and "Jesus" only 3 times (Robert Grant, The Apostolic Fathers, Vol. 4, page 7). Another example is Polycarp. In his letter he ten times refers to "Jesus Christ" and never once to "Jesus." Though certainly not determinative, this is suggestive and more consistent with authorship by Josephus than a Christian interpolator.

b. A wise man, if it be lawful to call him a man,

Although the phrase "wise man" sounds positive, it almost certainly is not a Christian addition. That it is followed by the obvious interpolation "if it be lawful to call him a man" indicates that the interpolator found the description of Jesus as a "wise man" to be woefully inadequate. So, he remedies this insufficient estimate of Jesus by clarifying that there is good reason to doubt he was just a man. "A Christian scribe would not deny that Jesus was a wise man, but would feel that label insufficient for one who has believed to be God as well as man." (Meier, op. cit., page 60). Mason adds: "As it stands, the reticence to call Jesus a man seems like a rejoinder to the previous, already flattering statement that he was a wise man. It seems more like a qualification of an existing statement than part of a free creation." (Mason, op. cit., page 171; See also France, op. cit., page 30: "Thus the clause 'if indeed one should call him a man' makes good sense as a Christian response to Josephus' description of Jesus as (merely) a 'wise man', but is hardly the sort of language a Christian would have used if writing from scratch.").

Furthermore, the phrase "wise man" is characteristically Josephan. And its context and how Josephus uses it elsewhere are especially matched to its use in the TF:

He uses the designation “wise man” sparingly, but as a term of considerable praise. King Solomon was such a wise man (Ant. 8.53), and so was Daniel (10.237). Interestingly, both men had what we might call occult powers—abilities to perform cures and interpret dreams—of the sort that Jesus is credited with in the testimonium.

(Mason, op. cit., page 171).

Leading Jewish scholar Geza Vermes agrees that there is a connection between the use of the term for Daniel and Solomon and the TF's description of Jesus:

Of these, Solomon and Daniel are the most obvious parallels to Jesus qua wise men. Both were celebrated as masters of wisdom. Hence it is not surprising to find the epithet 'teacher' follows closely the phrases under consideration in the Testimonium.

(Geza Vermes, The Jesus Notice of Josephus Re-Examined, Journal of Jewish Studies, Spring 1987, page 3).

Finally, an often overlooked argument about the use of "wise man" is that it would have a "pejorative connotation" to Christians. In 1 Corinthians 1:24, 30, the wisdom of man is put in a very negative light. In Matthew 11:25 and Luke 10:21, "the wise" are compared unfavourably to "babes." Indeed, such a term is not used by Christians in their early literature to describe Jesus. Vermes, op. cit., page 5. This adds yet more weight to the argument for partial authenticity. As Vermes concludes, "no stylistic or historical argument" can be "marshalled against the authenticity" of this phrase. (Ibid).

c. for he was a doer of wonderful works,

The term for "doer" here has been claimed not to be Josephan. But Professor Meier is aware of this argument and offers an explanation:

[I]t is used elsewhere in Josephus only in the sense of "poet"; but Josephus . . . has a fondness for resolving a simple verb into two words: a noun expressing the agent and the auxiliary verb (e.g., krites einai for the simple krinein). Moreover, Josephus uses such cognates as poieteos, 'that which is to be done," poiesis, "doing, causing" (as well as "poetry, poem"), and poietikos, 'that which causes something" (as well as "poetic").

(Meier, op. cit., page 81).

Furthermore, it is not all that unusual for ancient Greek authors to use occasionally a word in an unusual way. The undisputed epistles of Paul have their share not only of hapex legomena but also of Pauline words and phrases that Paul uses in a given passage with an unusual meaning or construction. Especially since Josephus is dealing in the Testimonium with peculiar material, drawn perhaps from a special source, we need not be surprised if his usage differs slightly at a few points.

(Meier, op. cit., page 83 (emphasis added)).

On balance therefore, there is nothing about this term that counts against authenticity.

One the other hand, Mason confirms that the term "startling/incredible deeds" (paradoxa) is Josephan: "Josephus often speaks of “marvels” and “incredible” things in the same breath, as the testimonium does. He even uses the phrase rendered “incredible deeds” in two other places, once of the prophet Elisha (Ant. 9.182; cf. 12.63)." (Mason, op. cit., page 171). Yet this term is nowhere used in the New Testament to describe Jesus' miracles. Nor is it used in early Christian literature prior to its citation by Eusebius.

The reason Christians generally avoided this term is that it could just as easily be interpreted in a neutral or even negative way, such as "controversial deeds." Professor Van Voorst notes that the phrase "is ambiguous; it can also be translated 'startling/controversial deeds.'" (Jesus Outside the New Testament, page 78). Professor Vermes notes that "paradoxa" is not an unambiguous reference to a Godly miracle. In fact, "students of Josephus seem to agree that the word best expressing his notion of 'miracle' is" a different Greek term that Vermes translates "sign." This is especially true when the issue concerns an extraordinary deed achieved by a man of God (Vermes, op. cit., page 7). Josephus does not use the unambiguous term, but uses "paradoxa." According to Vermes, "paradoxa" is simply too neutral standing alone to be a positive attestation. Though Josephus uses this term for Moses and Elisha, he goes out of his way to explain that the deeds described there were from God.

The Jesus notice, though verbally closely related to the Elisha passage, lacks a positive evaluation by Josephus. His is a fairly sympathetic but ultimately detached description: he reports traditions concerning Jesus, but he is personally not committed to them.

(Vermes, op. cit., page 8).

Such a neutral reference would be expected from Josephus, but not from any Christian interested in inserting the interpolation in the first place.
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Old 09-18-2011, 07:16 PM   #54
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Originally Posted by TedM View Post
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The most logical conclusion is that the term 'tribe of Christians' was neither an interpolation of Eusebius, nor of ANY Christian at all. This provides clearer support for it being original to Josephus than what I had prior to your declaration that it must have been written by Eusebius. Thank you.
There's no logic there.
You apparently either a) didn't read what I wrote, or b) couldn't comprehend it since you didn't interact with it.



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Now you are back to the 'clever interpolator', who either was also so stupid that he added in Christian terms--contrary to manuscript evidence--or who was then followed by at least one more interpolator--the very idea you said you found bizarre.
What is inconsistent with an interpolator who had no need to be especially clever?
Why should I answer the same question that ignores what I've already written?


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This is the same way I felt up until a few months ago. It is a lazy response that is more the product of skepticism than rationalism.
How many insults can you pile on that improbable statement? I don't for one minute think that you suddenly found Layman's essay and saw the light, Hallelujah! so you could believe that Josephus referred to Jesus.
Keep calling me a liar. It doesn't change the truth.


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There is nothing lazy about recognizing reality, and skepticism and rationality are not opposed to each other.
You are sounding more dogmatic every day toto. I get the sense that you have responded to me simply from using your memory of the various arguments, and logic about what 'could have been'. If appears that you are ignoring the various arguments I've presented because you have already made up your mind about the TF. You are just finding things like George Washington prayer books to demonstrate that Price might be wrong. What kind of approach is that toto?


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What is relevant is whether there is any basis for thinking you can recover anything. For example, the interpolator might have replaced phrases in the original text. That leaves no way of recovering the original.
Price is working with what we have, and finding value in it. You appear to be disregarding the value because what we have might not be what was originally there! Why don't we just scrap ALL of Josephus' works since an interpolator might have replaced the whole thing with phrases that sound Josephan in some places and reflect his own bias in others? What kind of sense are you trying to make here? It just sounds evasive.



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The clever interpolator is your fantasy. The evidence supports an interpolator who was clever enough but did not need to create a realistic forgery by modern critical standards.
Yes you said that already and it makes as little sense the second time as the first. And, it continues to ignore the evidence Price has given for a pre-existing core. If you think the interpolator was clever enough to be unrealistic why don't you clarify just what the hell that is supposed to even mean?
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Old 09-18-2011, 08:07 PM   #55
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Originally Posted by Toto View Post
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Originally Posted by TedM View Post
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The most logical conclusion is that the term 'tribe of Christians' was neither an interpolation of Eusebius, nor of ANY Christian at all. This provides clearer support for it being original to Josephus than what I had prior to your declaration that it must have been written by Eusebius. Thank you.
There's no logic there.
You apparently either a) didn't read what I wrote, or b) couldn't comprehend it since you didn't interact with it.
There is another possibility - I thought it was so totally inept that it would be better not to mention it.

This is not an exercise in strict logic. People look at the text and get a feel for whether it sounds authentic, then look for formal reasons. You claim that it is unlikely that a Christian would have used the term, although we have examples of two such Christians. We have no good reason to think that Josephus would have called Christians a tribe, although he could have. Where does that leave us?

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Now you are back to the 'clever interpolator', who either was also so stupid that he added in Christian terms--contrary to manuscript evidence--or who was then followed by at least one more interpolator--the very idea you said you found bizarre.
What is inconsistent with an interpolator who had no need to be especially clever?
Why should I answer the same question that ignores what I've already written?
OK - I find what you have written to be totally unpersuasive. I'm just registering that.

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Originally Posted by Toto
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Originally Posted by TedM
This is the same way I felt up until a few months ago. It is a lazy response that is more the product of skepticism than rationalism.
How many insults can you pile on that improbable statement? I don't for one minute think that you suddenly found Layman's essay and saw the light, Hallelujah! so you could believe that Josephus referred to Jesus.
Keep calling me a liar. It doesn't change the truth.
What truth? If you are looking for truth, why did you start with an article by an amateur Christian apologist?

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There is nothing lazy about recognizing reality, and skepticism and rationality are not opposed to each other.
You are sounding more dogmatic every day toto. You refuse to consider the arguments because you have already made up your mind. I don't think you've actually interacted with a single argument he has made yet. You are just finding things like George Washington prayer books to demonstrate that Price might be wrong. What kind of approach is that toto?
Do you think this is the first time I've seen this? I'm just tired of the same old recycled arguments again and again.

But you have not justified your claim that rationality and skepticism are different, or that recognizing the unrecoverability of the original text is due to "laziness." Steve Mason reached the conclusion that the original text was unrecoverable after pages of analysis - hardly the sign of laziness.

The GW Prayer Book is an example of a Christian forger, to counter your idea that the interpolator must have been "clever".

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What is relevant is whether there is any basis for thinking you can recover anything. For example, the interpolator might have replaced phrases in the original text. That leaves no way of recovering the original.
Price is working with what we have, and finding value in it. You appear to be disregarding the value because what we have might not be what was originally there! Why don't we just scrap ALL of Josephus' works since an interpolator might have replaced the whole thing with phrases that sound Josephan in some places and reflect his own bias in others? What kind of sense are you trying to make here? ...
Let me repeat, Price is not a neutral scholar. He does not read the original text. He is a Christian apologist, cherry picking arguments from others. He finds what he wants to find.

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The clever interpolator is your fantasy. The evidence supports an interpolator who was clever enough but did not need to create a realistic forgery by modern critical standards.
Yes you said that already and it makes as little sense the second time as the first.
That means that you didn't understand it. How can I help you?

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And, it continues to ignore the evidence Price has given for a pre-existing core.
Price has no evidence. He has listed some words and phrases that sound Josephan, and he has some arguments against claims that other phrases are not Josephan. That's just not impressive.

Let me expand on a previous comment: if you take the text and remove the phrases that Josephus could not have written, you are left with words that sound like Josephus could have written them. But this is not evidence, much less proof, that Josephus did write those words. Does this make sense?

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If you think the interpolator was clever enough to be unrealistic by don't you clarify just what the hell that is supposed to even mean?
I do not recall using the phrase "clever enough to be unrealistic" so I have no idea what it could mean.
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Old 09-18-2011, 09:59 PM   #56
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Originally Posted by toto
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Originally Posted by me
You are sounding more dogmatic every day toto. You refuse to consider the arguments because you have already made up your mind. [edited: I don't think you've actually interacted with a single argument he has made yet. ] You are just finding things like George Washington prayer books to demonstrate that Price might be wrong. What kind of approach is that toto?
Do you think this is the first time I've seen this? I'm just tired of the same old recycled arguments again and again.
And that's how your responses are coming across. While I know these arguments are 'old' for you, they are not all old for me, and for others here. I had decided years ago that the TF was clearly corrupted and since Origen didn't mention it, that was that--no point in looking for something authentic. Then when I read Price a few months ago I realized that one should not simply dismiss a 'corrupted' passage 'whole cloth' IF good arguments could be made for partial authenticity.

I started this thread because I thought Price had made some good arguments and am interested to know the counter-arguments. Your responses showed from the beginning that you are tired of it and prefer to not discuss it because you seem to mostly be ignoring my points, or criticizing them without explanation. Maybe it would be better to let others respond when you feel this way.

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But you have not justified your claim that rationality and skepticism are different
I thought it was self-evident. Skepticism has a 'I will believe it only when I see it' connotation, whereas rationalism allows for belief given sufficient reasonable evidence.

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.. or that recognizing the unrecoverability of the original text is due to "laziness." Steve Mason reached the conclusion that the original text was unrecoverable after pages of analysis - hardly the sign of laziness.
I have already said that I think it is irrelevant if the original text can be exactly recovered. What I think is lazy is not considering the arguments for partial authenticity because of a belief that it is a waste of time. If you have looked into such arguments then you were not lazy, but it does appear that you have the belief that it is a waste of time, so I do wonder how open-minded you were when you did prior research as well as now.

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The GW Prayer Book is an example of a Christian forger, to counter your idea that the interpolator must have been "clever".
The difference is that the prayers were seen to be inauthentic by experts, whereas the TF has phrases that experts would never say are inauthentic. So, it appears to me that your example doesn't apply.


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Originally Posted by me
And you ignored what I wrote about them. I conclude that you didn't like what the source gave and saw no reason to even look at what was written. The source put the use of 'tribe' into the proper context--basically he/she showed that Olsen didn't know what he was talking about, and all those people that have relied on Olsen's comments about the 'tribe of Christians'--including yourself, also didn't know that they were talking about. Now do you care to comment?
We have no good reason to think that Josephus would have called Christians a tribe, although he could have. Where does that leave us?
Your sentence reflects an unnatural skepticm toto. First, why do we need 'good' reason to think that Josephus would have called Christians a tribe? You could just as well have written: We have no good reason to think that Josephus would not have called Christians a tribe. In fact, opponents of Christianity, perhaps even the Jew Trypho, were calling Christians a tribe according to Justin (per the source I gave).

So, you ask where does that lead us? What I pointed you to leads us to re-evaluating the validity of Olsen's arguments in general since he appears to be unable to determine the proper context of Eusebius's writings. It also leads us to accepting the idea that non-Christians were probably more likely to refer to Christians as a 'tribe' than were Christians, and that then leads us to re-balance the scales, with a little more weight given to a pre-existing text that has been preserved in the existing text which was either authentic to Josephus, interpolated in by a non-Christian, or interpolated in by a 'clever' Christian interpolator --which possibly implies a second interpolator who wasn't so clever.




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Price is working with what we have, and finding value in it. You appear to be disregarding the value because what we have might not be what was originally there! Why don't we just scrap ALL of Josephus' works since an interpolator might have replaced the whole thing with phrases that sound Josephan in some places and reflect his own bias in others? What kind of sense are you trying to make here? ...
Let me repeat, Price is not a neutral scholar. He does not read the original text. He is a Christian apologist, cherry picking arguments from others. He finds what he wants to find.
Yet your argument seems to be going back to a belief that since the original text can't be recovered, what is the point. My response was that one could say that about any writing. Your response to that goes straight to Price, which strikes me as irrelevant. You seem to have let your feelings/beliefs about Price dictate how you are interacting with the subject, from the get go to even now.



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The clever interpolator is your fantasy. The evidence supports an interpolator who was clever enough but did not need to create a realistic forgery by modern critical standards....
That means that you didn't understand it. How can I help you?
Perhaps you can start by explaining how clever is 'clever enough' and what kind of forgery he did need to create. If the answer is 'one that Christians would accept', then why include a bunch of Josephan phrases at all? If the answer is 'one that scholars or religious leaders of the day would accept' do you really think they would accept Josephus saying that Jesus was the Christ? I am having a hard time seeing what you are thinking here, so please do help me.


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Price has no evidence. He has listed some words and phrases that sound Josephan, and he has some arguments against claims that other phrases are not Josephan. That's just not impressive...Let me expand on a previous comment: if you take the text and remove the phrases that Josephus could not have written, you are left with words that sound like Josephus could have written them. But this is not evidence, much less proof, that Josephus did write those words. Does this make sense?
Not to me. I don't see how you can ever say a passage is evidence --much less proof, that a particular person wrote it. Either it is consistent or it isn't.

Now, let me expand: If you take any text written by a particular person and remove the phrases they could not have written, you are left with words that sound like that author could have written them. But this is not evidence, much less proof, that the author did write those words.

You again seem to be demanding proof here--that's why I made the skepticism vs rationalism comment. It appears you are holding the TF to a high standard without justification for doing so. Would you say the same thing for any other passage in Josephus?
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Old 09-18-2011, 11:58 PM   #57
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As to the claim from modern scholarship opinion, besides the fact that it is merely opinion, there have been no historians who have commented on the issue recently, only people who do religious studies. The bias is plain, given that the issue was decided at the beginning of the 20th century in favor of forgery, after which apologetics has arbitrarily resuscitated a partial TF.

As to the claim of the TF being appropriate in its context the analysis is simply wrong. To understand the fact, you have to read outside the TF. See my blog entry on the way the TF fits the discourse. This is strong evidence for the total rejection of the TF.

The James reference as christian apologists use it is a crock of shit. People ignore every other example of Paul's usage of αδελφος to claim that it must mean "biological brother" rather than Paul's preferred idiosyncratic meaning of "(fellow) believer". "James the fellow believer of the Lord" is rather unhelpful for the apologist.

The linguistic evidence has been tampered with, by removing passages that are overtly considered to have been interpolated. This means that one cannot say much that is useful, given the arbitrary nature of the resultant text.

Price's persuasive evidence that earlier Antiquities manuscripts lacked the phrases "he was the Christ" and "if indeed it is right to call him a man" is fallacious, based on the Agapius data, which Ken Olson easily clarifies. Even if you don't have time to read Olsen, the evidence actually comes from a rather late Arab source and the claim of "earlier" is baseless conjecture by hopeful apologetics.

Price is a lawyer, so he is well prepared to talk out of the side of his mouth and have it seem reasonable to people who don't know any better. But the old joke about lawyers should be considered: "How do you know when a lawyer is lying?" "He moves his lips." He adds absolutely nothing more than the schlock he offered here a decade ago.

The fact that scholars don't like some bits and are prepared to remove them doesn't say anything useful about what they aren't prepared to omit. The act of removal just taints the linguistic analysis on purely arbitrary grounds. My advice is: grow up. This is transparent disgraceful apologetics. You should know better than to present this greasy kid's stuff.
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Old 09-19-2011, 02:08 AM   #58
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. . . I had decided years ago that the TF was clearly corrupted and since Origen didn't mention it, that was that--no point in looking for something authentic. Then when I read Price a few months ago I realized that one should not simply dismiss a 'corrupted' passage 'whole cloth' IF good arguments could be made for partial authenticity.

I started this thread because I thought Price had made some good arguments and am interested to know the counter-arguments. ...
This discussion of your motivation does not make any sense to me. You've been around here a long time, and this passage has been discussed here before. Price is not putting forth any new arguments. If you care enough about this issue to start a thread, why have you not done just a little bit more research? Why confine yourself to Price's article, without reading Peter Kirby, or Steve Mason, or finding a copy of Olson's article?

And Price's arguments do not appear to be very good to me, so I don't know what you see in them.

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I thought it was self-evident. Skepticism has a 'I will believe it only when I see it' connotation, whereas rationalism allows for belief given sufficient reasonable evidence.
This is a distinction without a difference. You need to be skeptical of all evidence, but sufficient reasonable evidence allows you to accept the evidence. The question is whether there is reasonable evidence in this case.

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I have already said that I think it is irrelevant if the original text can be exactly recovered. What I think is lazy is not considering the arguments for partial authenticity because of a belief that it is a waste of time. If you have looked into such arguments then you were not lazy, but it does appear that you have the belief that it is a waste of time, so I do wonder how open-minded you were when you did prior research as well as now.
I read Steve Mason's Josephus and the New Testament (or via: amazon.co.uk) which has an excruciatingly thorough discussion of the issues. Price has quote mined some of that work, but does not report Mason's conclusion that the original text is unrecoverable. This is one reason that I do not take Price's work all that seriously.



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The difference is that the [George Washington] prayers were seen to be inauthentic by experts, whereas the TF has phrases that experts would never say are inauthentic. So, it appears to me that your example doesn't apply.
I think that if someone went through the George Washington Prayer Book, a few phrases could be extracted that were Washingtonian. But the experts reject it for the same reason that the experts think the TF was interpolated - the text embodies a point of view that belongs to someone else.

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Originally Posted by Toto
We have no good reason to think that Josephus would have called Christians a tribe, although he could have. Where does that leave us?
Your sentence reflects an unnatural skepticm toto. First, why do we need 'good' reason to think that Josephus would have called Christians a tribe? You could just as well have written: We have no good reason to think that Josephus would not have called Christians a tribe. In fact, opponents of Christianity, perhaps even the Jew Trypho, were calling Christians a tribe according to Justin (per the source I gave).

So, you ask where does that lead us? What I pointed you to leads us to re-evaluating the validity of Olsen's arguments in general since he appears to be unable to determine the proper context of Eusebius's writings. It also leads us to accepting the idea that non-Christians were probably more likely to refer to Christians as a 'tribe' than were Christians, and that then leads us to re-balance the scales, with a little more weight given to a pre-existing text that has been preserved in the existing text which was either authentic to Josephus, interpolated in by a non-Christian, or interpolated in by a 'clever' Christian interpolator --which possibly implies a second interpolator who wasn't so clever.
Have you read Olson's essay? Why do you think he is "unable to determine the proper context of Eusebius's writings?" The rest of your statement makes no sense.

This is what Olson says on that issue:
"From that time to now the nation of Christians has not failed." In Adversus Hieroclem, Eusebius asks that those who consider Apollonius "a divine being and superior to a philosopher, in a word as one superhuman in his nature" to point out any of his effects that have lasted "to this day" (EISETI NUN; A.H. 7). Jesus according to Eusebius, has left such effects (EISETI KAI NUN; A.H. 4 x2). The word "Christians" is not found anywhere in Josephus, but "nation (FULON) of Christians" is found in Eusebius (H.E. 3.33.2, 3.33.3). In the first book of the Demonstratio, Eusebius argues that the Christians are the "nation" promised to Abraham (D.E.: Ferrar 10, Migne 25c). He uses the terms FULON, EQNOS, and LAOS, pretty much interchangeably, to describe Christianity.

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Yet your argument seems to be going back to a belief that since the original text can't be recovered, what is the point. My response was that one could say that about any writing. Your response to that goes straight to Price, which strikes me as irrelevant. You seem to have let your feelings/beliefs about Price dictate how you are interacting with the subject, from the get go to even now.
This is a muddle. I think that the original text cannot be recovered with any degree of certainty, therefore this passage is of no help in deciding if there were a historical Jesus. There is always some uncertainty with ancient texts, but not to this degree.

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Perhaps you can start by explaining how clever is 'clever enough' and what kind of forgery he did need to create. If the answer is 'one that Christians would accept', then why include a bunch of Josephan phrases at all? If the answer is 'one that scholars or religious leaders of the day would accept' do you really think they would accept Josephus saying that Jesus was the Christ? I am having a hard time seeing what you are thinking here, so please do help me.
Whoever interpolated this passage put no effort into trying to fool a modern skeptic into thinking that Josephus actually wrote it. But there are lots of Christian forgeries that are similarly obvious.

It was probably a mistake to talk about a clever forger. If Eusebius was the interpolator, we can't say that he was stupid, but he was not trying to be a cleaver forger.

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...Let me expand on a previous comment: if you take the text and remove the phrases that Josephus could not have written, you are left with words that sound like Josephus could have written them. But this is not evidence, much less proof, that Josephus did write those words. Does this make sense?
Not to me. I don't see how you can ever say a passage is evidence --much less proof, that a particular person wrote it. Either it is consistent or it isn't.

Now, let me expand: If you take any text written by a particular person and remove the phrases they could not have written, you are left with words that sound like that author could have written them. But this is not evidence, much less proof, that the author did write those words.
So you agree that there is no evidence that this passage was written by Josephus? You seem to be agreeing with my point ??

Passages written by a given author will not have words that they could not have written. If they do, we know the passage has been tampered with, and we cannot trust it.

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You again seem to be demanding proof here--that's why I made the skepticism vs rationalism comment. It appears you are holding the TF to a high standard without justification for doing so. Would you say the same thing for any other passage in Josephus?
I would apply this to any other passage in Josephus with obvious interpolations. But I don't know of any other passage like this.
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Old 09-19-2011, 02:29 AM   #59
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Originally Posted by Toto View Post

Why confine yourself to Price's article, without reading Peter Kirby, or Steve Mason, or finding a copy of Olson's article?
Good point.

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Have you read Olson's essay?
A copy of Olson's essay
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Old 09-19-2011, 04:57 AM   #60
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Originally Posted by maryhelena View Post
The Slavonic Josephus nativity story is placed prior to the 15th year of Herod the Great, ie prior to 25 b.c. (counting from 40 b.c.)
Ah, that I have not found. I'll check it out.


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Ted, I have no problem if the TF, minus it's christian additions, was originally in Antiquities. (wishful thinking would not translate that story into historical fact). However, by all accounts, the TF was not quoted until the time of Eusebius.
So many here find this to be a compelling argument. I need to research this further. I'd like to see a reply from someone here to Price's comments (which quote research by Roger Pearce).


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Consequently, one has to deal with a later insertion, interpolation into Antiquities. Who did it? Eusebius most likely. Motive? Two fold. 1) give the gospel JC a historical veneer. 2) put an end to all the talk re that early crucifixion in the 7th year of Tiberius, 21 c.e. Not just talk, not just argument - move the damn story - and put it in Antiquities and claim that Josephus had the crucifixion in the 12th year of Tiberius (Josephus, in Antiquities, is ambiguous re dating Pilate anyway) - and give it a new accolade 'he was the christ'.
Ok, I'll check out the date issue.

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Well, for one, the Slavonic Josephus wonder-doer does not have a name.....
The internet version I read had a name later on--Jesus.
Your right - the internet version has the name 'Jesus' in the passage re Vespasian - could suggest a later addition.

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Some indeed by this understood Herod, but others the crucified wonder-doer Jesus, others again Vespasian.

http://www.sacred-texts.com/chr/gno/gjb/gjb-3.htm
I checked up on the book: Josephus' Jewish War and Its Slavonic Version: A Synotpic Comparison - and in that passage it has 'Jesus' like this <Jesus>.

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For some thought it (meant) Herod,
others the crucified miracle-worker. <Jesus>.
Others Vespasian*
http://books.google.com/books?id=gu5...page&q&f=false


Interestingly, although the online version of the wonder-doer story does not name the wonder-doer as 'Jesus' - the translation in the above book does...........but again with <> around the passage.

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<And they sought out a suitable time to kill him.
For they had given Pilate 30 talents earlier,
that he should give Jesus up to them>
Both the above book and the online translation have 'Jesus' in the passage regarding the inscription over the cross. The birth story, of the Anointed One, the star, the magi and the killing of the boy children, has no reference to the name 'Jesus'.

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Page 19 of the above book

Finally, it should be pointed out that the manuscripts of the ‘separate’ version expunge everything from the text of the ‘addition’ which appears to be too overtly Christian. Thus the name of Jesus is discarded in the ‘additions’ after Book II chp.IX. The same name is also expunged from the text of chp.V (pt.4( of Book VI in the explanation of the prophecies presaging the capture of Jerusalem by the Romans.
So, looks like it's been a bit of back and forth re adding and deleting the name of 'Jesus' to the wonder-doer story that is preserved in Slavonic Josephus.


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Footnote 174 - to the wonder-doer story from the above book. Page 262

Further in Vil and A an addition: If Josephus the Jew called him wonder-worker and the works he performed divine and super-human, we, orthodox and Christian people, firmly informed by the holy prophets and the divine apostles and the most worthy historians, call him Jesus Christ, our true Lord, just as the great and God speaking evangelists say, eye witnesses of the true word, which truly was.
Josephus' Jewish War and Its Slavonic Version: A Synotpic Comparison H. Leeming, K. Leeming (or via: amazon.co.uk)
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