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09-18-2011, 06:40 PM | #51 | ||
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1. The TF--handled in the OP. 2. The JTB passage is very different from the gospel accounts. 3. The James passage (from Jerome) gives no credit to Jesus for anything, as far as we know. 4. The current James passage mentions Christ in passing only. None of these show evidence of a Christian having interpolated 'whole cloth' positions that bolster a pro-orthodox position regarding Jesus. This fact alone is the strongest argument for either a 'clever' initial interpolator or Josephus himself, and in the first 2 above an interpolator probably added a line or two. What is striking about the 'clever' initial interpolator is the lack of any pro-Jesus statements in the JTB(where he is not even mentioned) and James. This fact alone argues for a non-Christian hand, and for authenticity for those passages. And if all of Josephus except for the TF is arguably authentic to Josephus, or a non-Christian hand, then this should be taken into consideration when examining the TF. And, if the TF has evidence of a Josephan core, which it does, we have no examples within all of Josephus, from which to conclude that the core was not authentic. Quote:
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09-18-2011, 06:55 PM | #52 | ||||
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09-18-2011, 07:02 PM | #53 | ||||
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09-18-2011, 07:16 PM | #54 | |||||||||
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09-18-2011, 08:07 PM | #55 | |||||||||||||||||
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This is not an exercise in strict logic. People look at the text and get a feel for whether it sounds authentic, then look for formal reasons. You claim that it is unlikely that a Christian would have used the term, although we have examples of two such Christians. We have no good reason to think that Josephus would have called Christians a tribe, although he could have. Where does that leave us? Quote:
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But you have not justified your claim that rationality and skepticism are different, or that recognizing the unrecoverability of the original text is due to "laziness." Steve Mason reached the conclusion that the original text was unrecoverable after pages of analysis - hardly the sign of laziness. The GW Prayer Book is an example of a Christian forger, to counter your idea that the interpolator must have been "clever". Quote:
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Let me expand on a previous comment: if you take the text and remove the phrases that Josephus could not have written, you are left with words that sound like Josephus could have written them. But this is not evidence, much less proof, that Josephus did write those words. Does this make sense? Quote:
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09-18-2011, 09:59 PM | #56 | |||||||||||
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I started this thread because I thought Price had made some good arguments and am interested to know the counter-arguments. Your responses showed from the beginning that you are tired of it and prefer to not discuss it because you seem to mostly be ignoring my points, or criticizing them without explanation. Maybe it would be better to let others respond when you feel this way. Quote:
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So, you ask where does that lead us? What I pointed you to leads us to re-evaluating the validity of Olsen's arguments in general since he appears to be unable to determine the proper context of Eusebius's writings. It also leads us to accepting the idea that non-Christians were probably more likely to refer to Christians as a 'tribe' than were Christians, and that then leads us to re-balance the scales, with a little more weight given to a pre-existing text that has been preserved in the existing text which was either authentic to Josephus, interpolated in by a non-Christian, or interpolated in by a 'clever' Christian interpolator --which possibly implies a second interpolator who wasn't so clever. Quote:
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Now, let me expand: If you take any text written by a particular person and remove the phrases they could not have written, you are left with words that sound like that author could have written them. But this is not evidence, much less proof, that the author did write those words. You again seem to be demanding proof here--that's why I made the skepticism vs rationalism comment. It appears you are holding the TF to a high standard without justification for doing so. Would you say the same thing for any other passage in Josephus? |
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09-18-2011, 11:58 PM | #57 |
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As to the claim from modern scholarship opinion, besides the fact that it is merely opinion, there have been no historians who have commented on the issue recently, only people who do religious studies. The bias is plain, given that the issue was decided at the beginning of the 20th century in favor of forgery, after which apologetics has arbitrarily resuscitated a partial TF.
As to the claim of the TF being appropriate in its context the analysis is simply wrong. To understand the fact, you have to read outside the TF. See my blog entry on the way the TF fits the discourse. This is strong evidence for the total rejection of the TF. The James reference as christian apologists use it is a crock of shit. People ignore every other example of Paul's usage of αδελφος to claim that it must mean "biological brother" rather than Paul's preferred idiosyncratic meaning of "(fellow) believer". "James the fellow believer of the Lord" is rather unhelpful for the apologist. The linguistic evidence has been tampered with, by removing passages that are overtly considered to have been interpolated. This means that one cannot say much that is useful, given the arbitrary nature of the resultant text. Price's persuasive evidence that earlier Antiquities manuscripts lacked the phrases "he was the Christ" and "if indeed it is right to call him a man" is fallacious, based on the Agapius data, which Ken Olson easily clarifies. Even if you don't have time to read Olsen, the evidence actually comes from a rather late Arab source and the claim of "earlier" is baseless conjecture by hopeful apologetics. Price is a lawyer, so he is well prepared to talk out of the side of his mouth and have it seem reasonable to people who don't know any better. But the old joke about lawyers should be considered: "How do you know when a lawyer is lying?" "He moves his lips." He adds absolutely nothing more than the schlock he offered here a decade ago. The fact that scholars don't like some bits and are prepared to remove them doesn't say anything useful about what they aren't prepared to omit. The act of removal just taints the linguistic analysis on purely arbitrary grounds. My advice is: grow up. This is transparent disgraceful apologetics. You should know better than to present this greasy kid's stuff. |
09-19-2011, 02:08 AM | #58 | |||||||||||
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And Price's arguments do not appear to be very good to me, so I don't know what you see in them. Quote:
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This is what Olson says on that issue: "From that time to now the nation of Christians has not failed." In Adversus Hieroclem, Eusebius asks that those who consider Apollonius "a divine being and superior to a philosopher, in a word as one superhuman in his nature" to point out any of his effects that have lasted "to this day" (EISETI NUN; A.H. 7). Jesus according to Eusebius, has left such effects (EISETI KAI NUN; A.H. 4 x2). The word "Christians" is not found anywhere in Josephus, but "nation (FULON) of Christians" is found in Eusebius (H.E. 3.33.2, 3.33.3). In the first book of the Demonstratio, Eusebius argues that the Christians are the "nation" promised to Abraham (D.E.: Ferrar 10, Migne 25c). He uses the terms FULON, EQNOS, and LAOS, pretty much interchangeably, to describe Christianity. Quote:
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It was probably a mistake to talk about a clever forger. If Eusebius was the interpolator, we can't say that he was stupid, but he was not trying to be a cleaver forger. Quote:
Passages written by a given author will not have words that they could not have written. If they do, we know the passage has been tampered with, and we cannot trust it. Quote:
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09-19-2011, 02:29 AM | #59 | ||
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09-19-2011, 04:57 AM | #60 | ||||||||||
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Interestingly, although the online version of the wonder-doer story does not name the wonder-doer as 'Jesus' - the translation in the above book does...........but again with <> around the passage. Quote:
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