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Old 12-04-2007, 09:41 PM   #91
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So at the end of the day, the term 'rabbi' is still an anachronism in the gospels.
Here's some data from the TDNT entry on Rabbi that you might want to consider:
Not until we close on the arguments from the previous discussion. Are you ready to do that yet? You know - about me being involved in the GMark/Sanders/crucifixion discussion (for starters)?

Or did you think you were going to get a free pass and walk away from these claims?
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Old 12-05-2007, 09:00 AM   #92
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The fact that there is one record of him being addressed with respect in familiar terms the word 'rabbi' does not show that the term was in common usage at the time. Hillel was anything except common.
I am only concerned with showing that the term was in use at all at the time.

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However, the Matthew usage indicates 'rabbi' as a title for the scribes and Pharisees. That would still be anachronistic.
Not necessarily. They are scribes and Pharisees who love to be called Rabbi. It seems that this is still a form of address rather than a title.

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By the way: I appreciate the fact that you went to the trouble find other sources for this claim. That's a sign of good debate character, in my book.
I suppose I should quit while I'm ahead.
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Old 12-05-2007, 10:34 AM   #93
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What about Hillel? He isn't post-Christian.
Correct, he wasn't. But Hillel was the greatest sage of the time. In spite of that, he never received the title "rabbi". His only title was "Ha-Zaken".

The fact that there is one record of him being addressed with respect in familiar terms the word 'rabbi' does not show that the term was in common usage at the time. Hillel was anything except common.



Ah, this is better now. Much more convincing than your previous source. If this stands, then you may be correct that the familiar usage was common during the time of Christ.

However, the Matthew usage indicates 'rabbi' as a title for the scribes and Pharisees. That would still be anachronistic.

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And another:
Not another, actually; it relies upon Riesner, who was your first source. So it is a reiteration of the first source, not a separate second source.

By the way: I appreciate the fact that you went to the trouble find other sources for this claim. That's a sign of good debate character, in my book.

You have ignored Jeffrey's post. Doesn't it rebut your position completely?

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2. רַבּ is already used for “teacher” in the saying handed down by Jehoshua b. Perachiah (c. 110 b.c.): “Get a teacher (רַב) and find a fellow-student.”16
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Old 12-05-2007, 10:41 AM   #94
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You have ignored Jeffrey's post.
I ignored nothing.
Jeffrey has other issues to sort out with me before he deserves a response.

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Doesn't it rebut your position completely?
Have you stopped beating your wife?
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Old 12-05-2007, 10:52 AM   #95
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The fact that there is one record of him being addressed with respect in familiar terms the word 'rabbi' does not show that the term was in common usage at the time. Hillel was anything except common.
I am only concerned with showing that the term was in use at all at the time.
But to disprove the anachronism charge, you need to show that it was a title in current usage. Not just a student-teacher term of endearment.

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Not necessarily. They are scribes and Pharisees who love to be called Rabbi. It seems that this is still a form of address rather than a title.
The context of the Matthew reference indicates that the usage was broader than the respect shown between disciple and student. Being called "rabbi, rabbi" was apparently occurring in the wider society - hence the references to marketplace, feasts, chief seats in the synagogues (for which no archaeological evidence exists), greetings in the markets, etc.
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Old 12-05-2007, 10:58 AM   #96
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You have ignored Jeffrey's post.
I ignored nothing.
Jeffrey has other issues to sort out with me before he deserves a response.

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Doesn't it rebut your position completely?
Have you stopped beating your wife?
If Jeffrey's reference rebuts your position, nobody has to sort out your position.

If rabbi was used circa 100 bce to mean "teacher," then your position is futile.

Is the reference inaccurate, or do you have some explanation that blunts its obvious effect on your claim? Let know.

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Originally Posted by Jeffrey Gibson
2. רַבּ is already used for “teacher” in the saying handed down by Jehoshua b. Perachiah (c. 110 b.c.): “Get a teacher (רַב) and find a fellow-student.”16
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Old 12-05-2007, 11:18 AM   #97
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But to disprove the anachronism charge, you need to show that it was a title in current usage. Not just a student-teacher term of endearment.
Why? Because the term is used in the NT as a title? But that is what I am disputing. I am saying that the term is used in the NT not as a title but as student-teacher term of respect.

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The context of the Matthew reference indicates that the usage was broader than the respect shown between disciple and student. Being called "rabbi, rabbi" was apparently occurring in the wider society - hence the references to marketplace, feasts, chief seats in the synagogues (for which no archaeological evidence exists), greetings in the markets, etc.
Perhaps, but that would indicate that at the time it was not a title, at least not exclusively so.
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Old 12-05-2007, 11:51 AM   #98
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The context of the Matthew reference indicates that the usage was broader than the respect shown between disciple and student. Being called "rabbi, rabbi" was apparently occurring in the wider society - hence the references to marketplace, feasts, chief seats in the synagogues (for which no archaeological evidence exists), greetings in the markets, etc.
This seems to be a very thin reed indeed.

First, this is the only use of the term rabbi in the Christian scriptures that is even arguably a title (at least according to you). The other references seem to mean nothing more than somebody who teaches, officially or unofficially. And of course John tells us that explicitly:


John 1:38 - Jesus turned, and saw them following, and said to them, "What do you seek?" And they said to him, "Rabbi" (which means Teacher),[didaskalos] "where are you staying?"

Second, the Matthew 23 text goes on to again defines rabbi as "teacher," or "master" not as a title, but as a description: (kathegetes in most MSS; didaskalos in the Alexandrine).

Matt 23:8 -But you are not to be called rabbi, for you have one teacher [or master], and you are all brethren. And call no man your father on earth, for you have one Father, who is in heaven. 10 Neither be called masters, for you have one master, the Christ. 11 He who is greatest among you shall be your servant; 12 whoever exalts himself will be humbled, and whoever humbles himself will be exalted. 13

The point here is that none of the disciples is to take some kind of leading role as a teacher or master in the faith. This has nothing to do with titles, but function and attitude. Christ is their leader and their teacher. And clearly Jesus isn't claiming that Christ is a "rabbi" in some titular sense.

Given that all other references to rabbi in the NT are clearly not titles, and given the ambiguity here, directed toward a nontitle by Jesus' subsequent admonition to the apostles, your claim that the NT uses the term as a title seems dubious.
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Old 12-05-2007, 01:54 PM   #99
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The context of the Matthew reference indicates that the usage was broader than the respect shown between disciple and student. Being called "rabbi, rabbi" was apparently occurring in the wider society - hence the references to marketplace, feasts, chief seats in the synagogues (for which no archaeological evidence exists), greetings in the markets, etc.
This seems to be a very thin reed indeed.
Not at all.

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First, this is the only use of the term rabbi in the Christian scriptures that is even arguably a title (at least according to you).
That's because all the other references are directed at Christ. What makes the Matthew example interesting is that it purports to show how the term was used in the broader context 1st century Jewish society.


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Given that all other references to rabbi in the NT are clearly not titles, and given the ambiguity here, directed toward a nontitle by Jesus' subsequent admonition to the apostles, your claim that the NT uses the term as a title seems dubious.
The quotes you used are all in reference to Christ or involving/referencing Christ. You missed that important distinction I drew above.
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Old 12-05-2007, 02:00 PM   #100
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The context of the Matthew reference indicates that the usage was broader than the respect shown between disciple and student. Being called "rabbi, rabbi" was apparently occurring in the wider society - hence the references to marketplace, feasts, chief seats in the synagogues (for which no archaeological evidence exists), greetings in the markets, etc.

Perhaps, but that would indicate that at the time it was not a title, at least not exclusively so.
But that's the key point.

If the text indicates that it *was* a title at that time then the text is still an anachronism, regardless of whether 'rabbi' was also being simultaneously used as a term of teacher-student endearment or respect.
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