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Old 06-15-2006, 02:27 PM   #51
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bfniii:
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...But none of this involves any imaginary "problem" with the Hebrew yalad...

since i am fairly certain that you are unable to show unequivocably that the biblical genealogies are fictional, the issue with the term stands.
As Diogenes the Cynic has already pointed out: I can.

But you seem to be admitting here that what you referred to as my "ad-hominem" is correct. WHY should the meaning of yalad be contingent on whether or not the genealogies are fictional?

Answer: because IF apologists assume that the genealogies are non-fictional, THEN they must alter the meaning of "yalad" to avoid the inconvenient date that would result.
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So, even though it could be used in a metaphorical or poetic phrase (to "bring forth" something), that doesn't change the meaning of the concept, and it's the right word to use in a true genealogy: as it is used in Genesis 11.

i accept your acknowledgement that it could be used in that way. that was the point.
Nope, you have missed the point. The word MEANS "begat". Occasional usage in a metaphorical sense doesn't change that (e.g. the English phrase "birth of a nation" doesn't change the meaning of the English word "birth"). But you still haven't addressed the fact that if each Biblical character "brings forth" the next when he reaches a specific age, these can be added up EVEN IF you alter the meaning. Indeed, it makes the situation even worse! If we assume (for instance) that it means "presented his son to the elders of the tribe on the son's bar-mitzvah", that chops 12 years off each "generation" and moves the Flood date to an even more recent period in history!
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Old 06-15-2006, 03:20 PM   #52
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Default Alternative Biblical dates for the Flood?

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Originally Posted by bfniii
Hurling the elephant. Perhaps you [Jack the Bodiless] could be so kind as to show how the genealogies are completely fictional.
And perhaps you as the co-claimant with the Bible could be so kind as to show how the genealogies are true, and if they are true, why they are important.
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Old 06-16-2006, 07:43 AM   #53
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Originally Posted by bfniii
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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
...So, are you ready to address the points now? You can start with explaining away the "X begat Y when he was Z years old" sequence. As already explained, messing about with the (well-understood) meaning of the Hebrew "yalad" won't actually get you anywhere, because you can still add up the Z's.
this is obfuscation on your part because you can't show that your interpretations are the only ones that can possibly be correct.
Gosh, it's bfniii, caught with his pants down, changing the meaning of words he can't handle once again. This is so dishonest as an approach to a text. You should be ashamed to both plead ignorance of the original language and then say that the usual translations are wrong. You are simply in no position to argue this. You are once again admitting you can't deal with the text for what it says and you have to bring in a wild card. To hold your hand for a moment, the word YLD means "to bring forth" so much in the direction of "to give birth" that the word "child" is derived from YLD.

Now for anyone trying to support other, less frequent meanings of a term, they have to demonstrate enough contextualisation of the term for a reader to understand that a less frequent significance was intended. This is a linguistic dictum I give to you. If there is no contextualisation for the term to be taken in a less frequent manner, then one cannot hope to argue for that less frequent meaning.
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Old 06-16-2006, 02:17 PM   #54
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Originally Posted by Diogenes the Cynic
If the characters listed in the genealogies are proveably fiction then the genealogies have to be fictional as well. There was no "Adam," therefore no genealogy which traces ancestry from him can be authentic any more than if it traced ancestry to Hercules.
i was unaware that someone knew of a way to prove there was no adam.
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Old 06-16-2006, 02:22 PM   #55
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i was unaware that someone knew of a way to prove there was no adam.
Now you know.
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Old 06-16-2006, 02:32 PM   #56
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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
As Diogenes the Cynic has already pointed out: I can.
he hasn't pointed out anything yet. and neither have you.



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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
But you seem to be admitting here that what you referred to as my "ad-hominem" is correct. WHY should the meaning of yalad be contingent on whether or not the genealogies are fictional?
first, you stated that no competent scholar would try to date the flood from the genealogies, but earlier in this thread you were trying to do just that. second, there is no "problem" with the word. the word had flexible usage in their culture contrary to what you believe. third, the genealogies are not rendered useless if the word is used to mean ancestor. as i stated before, minute by minute chronology was often not the purpose of such lists.



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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
Nope, you have missed the point. The word MEANS "begat". Occasional usage in a metaphorical sense doesn't change that (e.g. the English phrase "birth of a nation" doesn't change the meaning of the English word "birth").
you are admitting that the word can be used that way, but denying that the hebrews used the word that way in this instance. now just show how you are right instead of just stating your opinion.



Quote:
Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
But you still haven't addressed the fact that if each Biblical character "brings forth" the next when he reaches a specific age, these can be added up EVEN IF you alter the meaning.
but you would be omitting all of the people in between the two people concerned. the addition would be incomplete.



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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
Indeed, it makes the situation even worse! If we assume (for instance) that it means "presented his son to the elders of the tribe on the son's bar-mitzvah", that chops 12 years off each "generation" and moves the Flood date to an even more recent period in history!
you're going in the wrong direction. if person 1 was 100 when they became the ancestor of person 2, there is an untold number of people in between the two. it could be one or one million. who knows?
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Old 06-16-2006, 02:34 PM   #57
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And perhaps you as the co-claimant with the Bible could be so kind as to show how the genealogies are true, and if they are true, why they are important.
same question that we have been over time and time again; what information could exist that would show that they are true? what kind of information would you like? why is any such list important?
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Old 06-16-2006, 02:53 PM   #58
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Originally Posted by spin
Gosh, it's bfniii, caught with his pants down, changing the meaning of words he can't handle once again.




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Originally Posted by spin
This is so dishonest as an approach to a text. You should be ashamed to both plead ignorance of the original language and then say that the usual translations are wrong. You are simply in no position to argue this. You are once again admitting you can't deal with the text for what it says and you have to bring in a wild card. To hold your hand for a moment, the word YLD means "to bring forth" so much in the direction of "to give birth" that the word "child" is derived from YLD.
i asked a simple question. are you not able to answer it? just try to answer the question instead of distracting people with this circus routine. why does the word have to be translated that way in this instance? if you can't show that, then it's possible other translations could be used here.

the word "child" being derived from the word does not mean that the word couldn't be used as ancestor. more distraction.



Quote:
Originally Posted by spin
Now for anyone trying to support other, less frequent meanings of a term, they have to demonstrate enough contextualisation of the term for a reader to understand that a less frequent significance was intended.
which i have done. it is common knowledge that the lists weren't always meant to chronicle every single person that lived. a good example is the discrepancy between the two lists for Jesus.



Quote:
Originally Posted by spin
This is a linguistic dictum I give to you. If there is no contextualisation for the term to be taken in a less frequent manner, then one cannot hope to argue for that less frequent meaning.
perhaps you would be so kind as to show that one usage was less than another.
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Old 06-16-2006, 02:54 PM   #59
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Originally Posted by Diogenes the Cynic
Now you know.
well, let's see it....
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Old 06-16-2006, 04:20 PM   #60
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Sir, at the risk of being flamed, I submit there is only one possible date for a worldwide flood.

Never.

Eldarion Lathria
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