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Old 12-26-2008, 01:30 PM   #471
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If slavery was immoral, then why was slavery even permitted in the first place?
Why was divorce permitted under the mosaic law? Wouldn't it had been better if divorce was never permitted in the first place?
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Old 12-26-2008, 01:36 PM   #472
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arnoldo: are you comparing slavery to divorce? Should you not be comparing marriage as it was practiced at the time to slavery?

Can you give me a good reason to leave this thread open?
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Old 12-26-2008, 01:37 PM   #473
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The Hebrew was a slave but not for long; the god of the bible worked hard and sternly for their liberation.

He told the slave owners: slavery is very bad for your health-give it up now. What a glorious message, which is the core, the heart, the mind of the Bible!

The god of the Bible did not cease in his work of liberation until the free slaves were safely across the waters beyond the reach of the overseers. This moment of supreme joy is gloriously celebrated in the Song of the Sea. A song Abraham Lincoln understood well, of that I have no doubt.

The god of the Bible taught the free slaves how to remain free and never accept slavery. He had shown them in Egypt that slave traders are really bad people.

There were no slaves in Biblical Israel. The word slave means ‘serf’.

Why argue this point? Glorious doings for the freedom of man should be celebrated.
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Old 12-26-2008, 01:43 PM   #474
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Can you give me a good reason to leave this thread open?
No. It's been beat to death like the Egyptian in Exodus 2:12, bury it in the sand like Moses did to that guy.
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Old 12-26-2008, 01:50 PM   #475
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arnoldo: are you comparing slavery to divorce? Should you not be comparing marriage as it was practiced at the time to slavery?
The Mosaic law permitted divorce in much the same way slavery was also permitted. At the same time there is no commandments in the OT for the people to divorce or obtain slaves, rather it was permitted due to the reality of the society at the time.
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Old 12-26-2008, 01:55 PM   #476
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Can you give me a good reason to leave this thread open?
No. It's been beat to death like the Egyptian in Exodus 2:12, bury it in the sand like Moses did to that guy.
There is a parallel between the initial rejection of Moses as the liberator of the Jews and their latter initial rejection of Yeshua, note Exodus 2:14
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And he said, Who made thee a prince and a judge over us? intendest thou to kill me, as thou killedst the Egyptian? And Moses feared, and said, Surely this thing is known.
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Old 12-26-2008, 02:28 PM   #477
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No. It's been beat to death like the Egyptian in Exodus 2:12, bury it in the sand like Moses did to that guy.
There is a parallel between the initial rejection of Moses as the liberator of the Jews and their latter initial rejection of Yeshua, note Exodus 2:14
Quote:
And he said, Who made thee a prince and a judge over us? intendest thou to kill me, as thou killedst the Egyptian? And Moses feared, and said, Surely this thing is known.
So Jesus has been hiding in the desert like Moses did because He's afraid that He'll be an accessory to all the murders done in His name... God sure is rigorous with statutes of limitation
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Old 12-26-2008, 02:30 PM   #478
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If slavery was immoral, then why was slavery even permitted in the first place?
Why was divorce permitted under the mosaic law?
An irrelevant question since

1. slavery is not divorce;
2. divorce was not considered immoral;
3. slavery is not indentured servitude;
4. murder was not permitted, so there are obviously some absolute morals - why didn't the Bible put slavery in that category?

The question stands: if the bible considered slavery is immoral, then why was it permitted?

Here is the answer that you are avoiding admitting: the Bible did not consider slavery immoral. Even though we know that slavery is wrong today, the Bible actually endorses it.

Conclusion:
the morality of Enlightenment humanity is actually superior to the Bible in that regard.
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Old 12-26-2008, 02:34 PM   #479
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There is a parallel between the initial rejection of Moses as the liberator of the Jews and their latter initial rejection of Yeshua,
No, there is not, for multiple reasons:

1. The Jews did not initially reject Moses; the Jews followed Moses;
2. The Jews did reject Jesus and do not follow him

About as busted of a "parallel" as you can get.

Quote:
note Exodus 2:14
Which does not demonstrate that the Jews rejected Moses. That verse only quotes a single person among the Jews. Here is the entire passage in context:

EXO 2:11 And it came to pass in those days, when Moses was grown, that he went out unto his brethren, and looked on their burdens: and he spied an Egyptian smiting an Hebrew, one of his brethren.
EXO 2:12 And he looked this way and that way, and when he saw that there was no man, he slew the Egyptian, and hid him in the sand.
EXO 2:13 And when he went out the second day, behold, two men of the Hebrews strove together: and he said to him that did the wrong, Wherefore smitest thou thy fellow?
EXO 2:14 And he said, Who made thee a prince and a judge over us? intendest thou to kill me, as thou killedst the Egyptian? And Moses feared, and said, Surely this thing is known.


You can't just make up stuff and expect us to swallow it, arnoldo. :rolling:
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Old 12-26-2008, 02:37 PM   #480
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arnoldo: are you comparing slavery to divorce? Should you not be comparing marriage as it was practiced at the time to slavery?
The Mosaic law permitted divorce in much the same way slavery was also permitted.
Incorrect. The Mosaic law frowned on divorce. That was not true with slavery. The Hebrews were told to take slaves from among the people they conquered. They were given as gifts from God.

Quote:
At the same time there is no commandments in the OT for the people to divorce or obtain slaves, rather it was permitted due to the reality of the society at the time.
1. What "realities of society" at the time? Be specific; nobody wants to hear your home made rationalizations.

2. Murder was a reality of society at that time. Why wasn't it tolerated like divorce?
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