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View Poll Results: Check off everything you would need to see to say a guy was a "Historical Jesus."
God 1 2.63%
Resurrection 3 7.89%
Healed miraculously and drove out real demons 3 7.89%
Was a conventional (non-supernatural) faith healer and exorcist, but did not do miracles 13 34.21%
Performed nature miracles such as walking on water 3 7.89%
Was born of a virgin 2 5.26%
Said all or most of what is attributed to him in the Gospels 4 10.53%
Said at least some of what is attributed to him in the Gospels 21 55.26%
Believed himself to be God 2 5.26%
Believed himself to be the Messiah 5 13.16%
Was believed by his followers to be God 1 2.63%
Was believed by his followers to be the Messiah 16 42.11%
Was involved in some kind of attack on the Temple 9 23.68%
Was crucified 27 71.05%
Was from Nazareth 8 21.05%
Was from Galilee 12 31.58%
Had 12 disciples 3 7.89%
Had some disciples, not necessarily 12 25 65.79%
Raised the dead 2 5.26%
Was believed by his disciples to still be alive somehow after the crucifixion. 17 44.74%
Multiple Choice Poll. Voters: 38. You may not vote on this poll

 
 
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Old 03-29-2012, 03:58 AM   #71
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For something or someone to be "historical" there needs to be suffient evidence from the relevant time to indicate their existence.
No. Belief in a historical person requires evidence, but no evidence can be evaluated until the historical person is defined.

The existence of a warlord named Arthur who fought a battle at Badon Hill seems pretty secure. The evidence is good enough for that. Whether that man was the historical King Arthur depends entirely on one's definition of "historical King Arthur."
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Old 03-29-2012, 04:08 AM   #72
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If we can't even agree on what we mean by the term "historical Jesus," then how can we have an intelligent discussion about it?
We cannot. Without a clear definition accepted by all participants, discussion is pointless.

It may be noted, though, that one way to guarantee that you apparently win an argument is by defining key terms so as to accommodate all the evidence that is already on the table.
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Old 03-29-2012, 04:10 AM   #73
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I'm not asking a question about the Jesus of the Gospels.
There is no other Jesus that is relevant for Christians.
Since I'm not a Christian, I couldn't care less what is relevant for Christians.
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Old 03-29-2012, 04:19 AM   #74
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That would depend entirely on what the defenders of his historicity were saying about him. Show me one of those defenders, and then I will tell you about the man whom I would consider the historical Hercules if his existence were proven. (emphasis by tanya)
"proven" ?

really, Doug?

Does that mean, since you have selected crucifixion and existence of disciples, that you believe that the existence of Jesus of Capernaum has been "proven"?
No, it does not mean anything like that.

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On what basis, may I inquire, do your regard the existence of Jesus of Capernaum as PROVEN?
I don't. I have said how I define "historical Jesus." I believe the evidence is against his actual existence.

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Now, Doug, whatever else you are doing, please google Hercules, and tell me if the SEVERAL enormous stone temples dedicated to him, do not serve as ample evidence of his historical existence?
Sure, just as soon as you explain how my doing so would have any relevance to the present discussion.
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Old 03-29-2012, 04:39 AM   #75
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Originally Posted by spin, post 39
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Do you know of any other " υιου του θεου " which are "historical"? If so, which criteria did you employ to make that determination?
Every single male pharaoh of the 18th Dynasty was son of god. The criterion used is the same as the one you use: some text says so.
Since there are genuine historical criteria available, apart from these texts you mention, then we understand that these men were all "LEGENDS", i.e. real people, about whom, exaggerated, unverified, hyperbolic allegations of prowess arose. You confound legend and myth. Myth = claim of supernatural ability. The "ability" of the pharohs was legendary, but also very real: King Tutankhamun, for example, died as a result of a fractured femur, at the young age of 19. Now, did he die from hemorrhage, or infection? Ah, no one knows. Therefore his death is legendary, but it is not mythical. Whatever divine power he was alleged to possess, disappeared upon his youthful demise. His life was genuine, (we possess his DNA) and the details of his life, do not hinge on those texts, you cite, spin, professing his divinity.

Not so the case for Jesus. We know nothing about him, apart from the four gospels, none of which were written during his lifetime. We must therefore evaluate Jesus, exclusively from those contradictory accounts. The one constant, however, in those four gospels, is the claim for Jesus' divinity. That makes Jesus mythical, not legendary.

The reason "we care" about a presumed historicity of Jesus, is because such a claim is fraudulent. Jesus was a genuine character in a genuine Greek novel. Was there some living human who served as a model for this character? Who knows? We have no evidence. We possess only fiction, not history, to guide us.

The situation is not unlike War and Peace, into which Tolstoy inserted genuine historical figures, together with his fictional characters. Mark's good news includes genuine figures, like Pontius Pilate. That makes his novel more attractive to prospective donors...clever marketing did not begin with Apple computer....
That's not a particularly convincing job of cleaning up your own mess: special pleading and argument from silence, wrapped around assertions.

Given that history is a best only partially able to reclaim shreds of the past, you are left with the epistemological problem of not being able to know who else in the gospels was real and who wasn't.

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Originally Posted by spin, post 55
For someone to be "historical" rather than just potentially real, requires substantive evidence.
:notworthy:

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Originally Posted by spin, post 58
Unfortunately, because of the nature of the gospels, they don't constitute any historical evidence for one cannot tell when they were written, by whom or where.
:notworthy:
:notworthy:

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Originally Posted by aa5874, post 59
Well, this also applies to the Pauline writings. We don't know who actually wrote them, the actual time they were written and where they were written.
:notworthy:
:notworthy:
:notworthy:
The writer was involved in the events he writes about. He is not just supposedly a witness. He wrote before the Jewish War, for the Jerusalem of Gal 2 has no problem with Jews in the city.

Yup:

:deadhorse:
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Old 03-29-2012, 04:44 AM   #76
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Originally Posted by Diogenes the Cynic
I'm not asking if such a person existed, or if there is evidence such a person existed, I'm only asking if such a person would qualify as a historical Jesus. (emphasis by tanya)
Quote:
Originally Posted by tanya
Now, Doug, whatever else you are doing, please google Hercules, and tell me if the SEVERAL enormous stone temples dedicated to him, do not serve as ample evidence of his historical existence?
Quote:
Originally Posted by Doug Shaver
Sure, just as soon as you explain how my doing so would have any relevance to the present discussion.
Diogenes has a poll, designed to reveal which criteria one should select, in order to "qualify" someone "as a historical Jesus".

Several members of the forum have endeavored to explain why such a poll is futile, yet, you have identified a couple of Diogenes' parameters as meaningful evidence of the historicity of Jesus of Capernaum.

So, I repeat, do you find the existence of enormous stone temples, meaningful evidence of the historicity of Hercules?

If you do not regard those temples, Doug, as meaningful evidence of the historicity of Hercules, then, if you were to excavate a temple, somewhere, say, 2nd century, like those of Hercules, impressive, reflecting a significant investment of both time and wealth, but, dedicated, not to Hercules, but rather, to Jesus of Capernaum, would you then decline to identify those temples as evidence of Jesus' historicity?

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Old 03-29-2012, 04:48 AM   #77
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Originally Posted by spin View Post
For something or someone to be "historical" there needs to be suffient evidence from the relevant time to indicate their existence.
No. Belief in a historical person requires evidence, but no evidence can be evaluated until the historical person is defined.
Evaluate the people named in the inscriptions of the fire brigades in Ostia Antica. They are just names, but they undoubtedly existed. There are thousands of such inscriptions that necessitate the existence of people, rendering them historical even though we know fuck all about them.

Nobody of the ilk of those asked to choose components of a historical Jesus would know anything about a battle at Badon Hill. They'd just know about round tables, gallant knights, unfaithful wives and swords in lakes.

If there is a Jesus behind the gospels, then there is no way for a reader to decide from the gospels what the characteristics of the person were, what he did. It would all have been mingled with dross in the evolution of tradition. We just see the round table and the sword in the stone.
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Old 03-29-2012, 05:10 AM   #78
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No. Belief in a historical person requires evidence, but no evidence can be evaluated until the historical person is defined.
A five minute walk through any cemetery in the world will show you why this is false.
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Old 03-29-2012, 05:15 AM   #79
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Originally Posted by Diogenes the Cynic View Post
Paul can easily be defined tautologically and sufficiently as the author of those 7 Epistles. He requires no other definition. If the same person wrote the "authentic" Pauline corpus, then that person is ipso facto Paul, even if nothing he said was true or even if he was Eusebius. paul is just a place holder name for "whoever wrote these letters."
According to the Oxford commentray, it was common for someone to write in the name ofa suoperior.
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Old 03-29-2012, 05:24 AM   #80
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Originally Posted by spin
Given that history is a best only partially able to reclaim shreds of the past, you are left with the epistemological problem of not being able to know who else in the gospels was real and who wasn't.
spin, I am laughing, watching, mesmerized by that figure of tanya beating on the dead horse. Hurrah. Great fun!!!

Obviously, for any text, coin, temple, pottery, we don't KNOW, 100% what is the truth. We will always have that dilemma, posed for us by the famous philosopher, ZhuangZi: are we the butterfly floating above us, gazing down in disbelief, rather than the person lying down in the boat looking up at the summer sky admiring the beauty of nature?

So, no, we cannot say FOR SURE, that Jesus is a myth. I cannot say FOR SURE, that there was a lone gunman in Dallas, Texas. I am not 100% sure that the World Trade Center was not rigged with explosives by the NSA.

In the case of ancient documents, there are always two huge problems: verifying authenticity of authorship, and establishing absence of interpolation, prior to the documents' recopying. We can only do our best, with what we have available. We may never know the real truth, about anything.

Quote:
Originally Posted by spin
The writer was involved in the events he writes about. He is not just supposedly a witness. He wrote before the Jewish War, for the Jerusalem of Gal 2 has no problem with Jews in the city.
So, Shakespeare had lived in Italy, then?

Galatia? You mean in Central Anatolia? Near the headwaters of Tigris/Euphrates?

Are you sure? Seems to me, that you wrote something, spin, I read it in the archives from a couple years ago, about a town downriver from Galatia, in Syria, if memory serves me right, third century, no problem with the Jews living in that town, with its synagogue and art work therein....Can you make art, spin, if the Roman army is killing the Jews?

So, what are you writing here, spin? Are you suggesting that in the time of the three Roman Jewish wars, there was persecution of the Jews, but that after 135 CE, no more persecution, hence, art could flourish, and that, since it obviously did flourish, that therefore, Paul must have written to a (Jewish?) congregation in Galatia before the three wars?

I am skeptical of that time line. I am persuaded that Paul's Jews in Galatia were not persecuted, because diaspora Jews prospered once the conflict had resolved, as shown by the famous Synagogue's artwork. No. Paul wrote AFTER that conflict had concluded, i.e. post 135 CE, in my opinion.

The point though, is very simple. No one knows the dates of publication. That was your contention for the gospels, and I agree. This uncertainty is also applicable, in my opinion, to the epistles.

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