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Old 07-18-2009, 03:18 PM   #211
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Originally Posted by Doug Shaver View Post

They believed in a risen Christ. The debate is about whether their Christ and the Jesus of the canonical gospels were one and the same.
Doug,

Something about the way you quote my original statement makes it disappear when I hit the quote button. I am probably doing something wrong but since there are about 20 replies, I am not really up to trying to match each one up with what I originally said. I expect you will not be too disappointed if I only respond to the ones that I can tell what you are responding to.

I think you are suggesting here that the identity of the risne Christ in gal, col, eph, phil might be someone different from the one from the gospels. Here are some reasons why I find that hard to believe.

(Gal 1:1) From Paul, an apostle (not from men, nor by human agency, but by Jesus Christ and God the Father who raised him from the dead)

Gal 2:1 - 10 is indicating that Pauls' message is the same as that as the other apostles. Seems to address your statement.


Quote:
It's anybody's guess what the author of that book believed.
I think you are talking about Revelation.

(Rev 1:1) The revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave him to show his servants what must happen very soon. He made it clear by sending his angel to his servant John,

(Rev 1:5) and from Jesus Christ - the faithful witness, the firstborn from among the dead, the ruler over the kings of the earth. To the one who loves us and has set us free from our sins at the cost of his own blood

Seems to belevie that the person in question was once dead and lost some blood in the process.

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They're all from the second century. Nobody is disputing that some Christians then were coming to believe in a historical Jesus.
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Blamed for what? For saying "Jesus is risen"? Not hardly.
for worshipping someone whe was crucified. (and therefore presumably not dead any longer)

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You think we should trust anything he says about Christians? Do you really want to go there?
I only need to trust that he belevied that Christians actually beleived that Jesus rose from the dead to make the point that early Christians belevied that Jesus rose from the dead.

Quote:
Tell us what Pliny says about what Christians believed. Go ahead. Quote him all you want.
Pliny says "I have never participated in trials of Christians." meaning he was aware that 'Christians were being tried and he was aware that Trajna knew what he was talking about and they have the same name as referred by Tacitus where they were identified as those who worshipped Christ who had been crucified under Pontius Pilate.

Pliny says "others many years, some as much as twenty-five years.". that brings us back about 80 AD that another group of people were calling themselves by the same name.

Pliny says "they were accustomed to meet on a fixed day before dawn and sing responsively a hymn to Christ as to a god" They worshiped Christ on a set day as did the christians in the book of Acts.


Quote:
Made up? You think the genre of fiction exists only in my imagination?
of course not, I think the genre of canonical fiction that reads like historical narrative that is not true but is not a lie on the part of the author is made up. It appears to be the same genre as the next century of christians write in, but in their case, they are far enough removed from the events where you do not need a motive for lying, you only need to explain why they were not aware of the genre of fiction.

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So, you're assuming that I believe his Dialogue with Trypho is the transcript of an actual conversation he had with a Jew whose name was Trypho? Guess again. I don't assume anything of the sort. I think he invented it, like Plato invented most if not all of his dialogues.
and when Plato invented a dialogue, it was to make a point. In this case, Justin martyr is responding to the accusation that the Jews call the Christians heretics because they TEACH THAT JESUS ROSE FROM THE DEAD. You do not have to believe that Trypho was real, only that common sense states from Justin Martyr's dialogue (real or not) that it was commonly held understanding that Christians think Jesus rose from the dead.

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Originally Posted by sschlichter View Post
Let's see those numbers, and tell us where you got them.
Are you saying that you do not belevie there were more Christian in the 3rd century than there were in the 1st century? You need numbers for that?
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Old 07-18-2009, 07:42 PM   #212
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JW:
there is no opportunity for anyone to steal the body. The women see the stone rolled away, they see that the tomb is empty and than they see Jesus (alive). If you believe "Matthew's" account there is no need for guards to prove that the disciples did not steal Jesus' body. So why would "Matthew" add the guards? Because in his Source, "Mark", there was opportunity to steal the body:
Houston, you have many problems.


Women are not allowed to testify as witnesses. It is unlawful. So, when the young man in Mark tells the women to ‘witness’ to Peter, what was the young man attempting to do? Was he attempting to cause them harm? Is that why they were afraid? And what happened to those women?



They were afraid and told no one. Why would they tell no one? It was against the law.

Why would it later be claimed that they did tell Peter? To charge them with having broken the law?


Quote:
If I am not for myself, who will be for me? And when I am for myself, what am I? If not now, when? Hillel, The Elder.
Of course that didn't, and apparently still doesn't apply to women (in case you didn't know that).

Quote:
Jewish feminism

In its modern form, the movement can be traced to the early 1970s in the
United States. According to Judith Plaskow, who has focused on feminism in Reform Judaism, the main issues for early Jewish feminists in these movements were the exclusion from the all-male prayer group or minyan, the exemption from positive time-bound mitzvot, and women's inability to function as witnesses and to initiate divorce.[1]
According to historian Paula Hyman, two articles published in 1970 on the role of women in Judaism were particularly influential. "The Unfreedom of Jewish Women," published in the Jewish Spectator by its editor, Trude Weiss-Rosmarin, criticized the treatment of women in Jewish law, followed in 1972 by an article by Rachel Adler, then an Orthodox Jew and currently a professor at the Hebrew Union College-Jewish Institute of Religion, called "The Jew Who Wasn't There: Halakhah and the Jewish Woman," published in Davka, a countercultural magazine.[2]

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Jewish_feminism

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Legal rights of women

The dependent position of women in early law is proved by the evidence of most ancient systems of early law which have in whole or in part descended to us. In the Mosaic law divorce was a privilege of the husband only, the vow of a woman might be disallowed by her father or husband, and daughters could inherit only in the absence of sons, and then they must marry in their tribe. The guilt or innocence of a wife accused of adultery might be tried by the ordeal of the bitter water. Besides these instances, which illustrate the [2 Deut. xxiv. 1. Numb. xxx. 3-Numb. xxvii., xxxvi. Numb. v. II.] subordination of women, there was much legislation dealing with, inter alia, offences against chastity, and marriage of a man with a captive heathen woman or with a purchased slave. So far from second marriages being restrained, as they were by Christian legislation, it was the duty of a childless widow to marry her deceased husbands brother.
http://www.wordiq.com/definition/Legal_rights_of_women
As to Roman women:

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A woman could not continue a family, for she was caput et finis familiae suae, she could not be a witness, surety, tutor, or curator; she could not adopt or be adopted, or make a will or contract.
http://www.wordiq.com/definition/Legal_rights_of_women



The plight of a woman, even in Jewish circles. Denial of the most basic of rights. The Catholics state that a woman upon marriage has no legal standing. "Her legal existence is suspended." And amongst the Jews, to this day, a woman cannot file for divorce, but must rely upon her husband to do so. I guess her legal existence is suspended as well.

And so men have forced women to stand up and fight like a man, literally, as in the suffrage movement. Ain't life grand? Weren't the gnostics wonderful?


Quote:
JoeWallack
"Mark"/"Matthew" themselves have impeached the guards, the women and the Sanhedrin as credible sources here.
The guards became as dead men.......................they have to be able to speak to impeach them.

Therefore, who were the soilders if to the victors go the spoils, and the opportunity to rewrite history? Where they the Roman's?


As to the Sanhedrin............... I don't think the modern day Israeli scholar did them any service when she recently claimed that the Jewish sages had to haul up in the upper room and do some fast rewriting, after the Bar Kochba revolt.

Crazy shit.
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Old 07-19-2009, 12:47 AM   #213
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The women were not called on to testify in court, so any alleged prohibition of women testifying is irrelevant here.

Richard Carrier has some extended comments on the status of women here.
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Just because it was unseemly for a woman to appear in court does not mean her testimony was not trusted. Confusing the two is a popular error made by numerous Christian apologists. In actual fact, the evidence proves quite the opposite of Holding's assumption that "women were regarded as 'bad witnesses' in the ancient world." The evidence does not support such a blanket distrust of female testimony, but shows instead that female testimony was often trusted, even in a court of law.

.`.`..

We even have actual court documents from the time of Jesus and Paul that include summaries of female testimony given at trial.[9] Examples aside, Roman law was quite explicit in permitting women to swear oaths and testify in court.[10] In fact, they could even represent themselves at trial, and until the time of Christ could advocate on behalf of others as well. Valerius Maximus lists several famous cases where women took others to trial, spoke in court, stood as witnesses, and won--indeed, he titles an entire chapter: "Women Who Conducted Their Own Cases before Magistrates on Their Own Behalf or Others."[11] This was regarded as scandalous, of course, necessitating the standardized Praetorian Edict (issued every year) to include a prohibition against women representing others in court (beginning sometime in the first century A.D.)--yet even this expressly allowed women to continue representing themselves, as defendants or (in most civil and even some criminal cases) as prosecutors.[12]
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Old 07-19-2009, 06:33 AM   #214
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Originally Posted by sschlichter View Post
Are you saying that you do not belevie there were more Christian in the 3rd century than there were in the 1st century? You need numbers for that?
No. I need numbers to believe your assertion that the number of converts grew exponentially during the second and third centuries.

I'll get to the rest of your post a little later.
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Old 07-19-2009, 09:37 AM   #215
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Originally Posted by Susan2 View Post
Billions of people have and continue to practice this story.
Hopefully you realize that belief, even wide spread belief, does not strengthen the veracity of a claim.

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Originally Posted by Susan2 View Post
Scholars research it, write about.
No-one is researching whether or not there were guards at the tomb. There is no research that could even be done on such a thing.

We are left to our own devices to determine whether or not the story is plausible. I think I've already made the case the story is grossly implausible, and is thus not historical. You are free to ignore the arguments if you choose, or address them head on.

1. Why would Rome willingly hand the body over for burial to the Christians, and then place guards at the tomb?

2. If the guards were Jewish rather than Roman, then this indicates the Jews were worried about Christians stealing the body. If that's the case, why didn't the Jews themselves demand the body in the first place? After all, they clearly had sway over Pilot who had just given in to their demands to have an innocent man crucified.

3. Was it commonplace for Rome to hand over the bodies of crucified men? To my knowledge, there is only one recorded instance of this outside Christian texts about Jesus, and in that case, the request was made by a personal friend (Josephus) of the emperor (Titus), in hopes that the lives of his 3 crucified friends could be saved. Sadly, two of the crucified men died, while the third recovered.

Quote:
Why did the author write these books? ....
Is it your contention that a single author wrote both Matthew and Mark? If so, what is that contention based on? If not, then why do you treat the two stories as if they were written cohesively?
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Old 07-20-2009, 07:49 AM   #216
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Originally Posted by sschlichter View Post
I think you are suggesting here that the identity of the risne Christ in gal, col, eph, phil might be someone different from the one from the gospels.
Yes. That is what I meant to suggest.

Quote:
Originally Posted by sschlichter View Post
Here are some reasons why I find that hard to believe.

(Gal 1:1) From Paul, an apostle (not from men, nor by human agency, but by Jesus Christ and God the Father who raised him from the dead)
You will have to explain why that statement makes it hard to believe that Paul was not referring to a Galilean preacher who had lived just a few years earlier in Palestine and had been executed by Pontius Pilate.

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Originally Posted by sschlichter View Post
Gal 2:1 - 10 is indicating that Pauls' message is the same as that as the other apostles.
That would help us a great deal in figuring out what Paul believed, if we had some reliable information about what the apostles who were contemporary with him believed. But we don't have that information.

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Originally Posted by Doug Shaver View Post
It's anybody's guess what the author of that book believed.
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Originally Posted by sschlichter View Post
I think you are talking about Revelation.
That is correct.

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Originally Posted by sschlichter View Post
Seems to belevie that the person in question was once dead and lost some blood in the process.
How does that imply anything about who he thought that person was?

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Originally Posted by sschlichter View Post
christians blamed by Nero in Tacitus
Quote:
Originally Posted by Doug Shaver View Post
Blamed for what? For saying "Jesus is risen"? Not hardly.
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Originally Posted by sschlichter View Post
for worshipping someone whe was crucified. (and therefore presumably not dead any longer)
According to Tacitus, Nero blamed them for starting a fire, nothing else.

Tacitus says that the sect thus accused by Nero got its name from someone he called "Christus," who "suffered the extreme penalty" at the hands of Pontius Pilate. Tacitus does not say that this "Christus" was worshipped by anyone and he says nothing else to imply, suggest, or otherwise hint that anybody thought he had returned to life after dying.

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Originally Posted by sschlichter View Post
Christians described by Lucian
Quote:
Originally Posted by Doug Shaver View Post
You think we should trust anything he says about Christians? Do you really want to go there?
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Originally Posted by sschlichter View Post
I only need to trust that he belevied that Christians actually beleived that Jesus rose from the dead to make the point that early Christians belevied that Jesus rose from the dead.
Considering the context, you have an odd notion of "early." Lucian wrote that satire in the late second century.

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Originally Posted by Doug Shaver View Post
Tell us what Pliny says about what Christians believed.
Quote:
Originally Posted by sschlichter View Post
Pliny says "I have never participated in trials of Christians."
And his next sentence is: "I therefore do not know what offenses it is the practice to punish or investigate, and to what extent." This implies that he does not know even so much as what they had been accused of.

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Originally Posted by sschlichter View Post
he was aware that Trajna knew what he was talking about
He assumed that Trajan would know. An assumption is not semantically equivalent to an awareness.

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Originally Posted by sschlichter View Post
Pliny says "others many years, some as much as twenty-five years."
Here it is in context: "Others named by the informer declared that they were Christians, but then denied it, asserting that they had been but had ceased to be, some three years before, others many years, some as much as twenty-five years."

Let me repeat my request: Tell us what Pliny says about what Christians believed. That doesn't say anything about what they believed.

Quote:
Originally Posted by sschlichter View Post
Pliny says "they were accustomed to meet on a fixed day before dawn and sing responsively a hymn to Christ as to a god" They worshiped Christ on a set day
OK. They worshipped him. They worshipped him in a way that was like the way people worshipped gods. And so we can infer that, probably, they believed he was either a god or something like a god.

And what else can we infer, from what Pliny tells us, about what Christians believed?

Quote:
Originally Posted by sschlichter View Post
common sense states from Justin Martyr's dialogue (real or not) that it was commonly held understanding that Christians think Jesus rose from the dead.
That depends on what you mean by "commonly held." The understanding did not have to be widespread. If some Christians during Justin's time believed that the gospel stories were historically factual, then just about everybody who knew those Christians would have been aware that they believed those stories were historically factual. And some of those people would have been Jews, and some of those Jews would have accused those Christians of believing a bunch of nonsense. That would have been all the excuse Justin needed to write his dialogue.
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Old 07-20-2009, 10:16 AM   #217
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Originally Posted by Toto View Post
The women were not called on to testify in court, so any alleged prohibition of women testifying is irrelevant here.

Richard Carrier has some extended comments on the status of women here.
Quote:
Just because it was unseemly for a woman to appear in court does not mean her testimony was not trusted. Confusing the two is a popular error made by numerous Christian apologists. In actual fact, the evidence proves quite the opposite of Holding's assumption that "women were regarded as 'bad witnesses' in the ancient world." The evidence does not support such a blanket distrust of female testimony, but shows instead that female testimony was often trusted, even in a court of law.

.`.`..

We even have actual court documents from the time of Jesus and Paul that include summaries of female testimony given at trial.[9] Examples aside, Roman law was quite explicit in permitting women to swear oaths and testify in court.[10] In fact, they could even represent themselves at trial, and until the time of Christ could advocate on behalf of others as well. Valerius Maximus lists several famous cases where women took others to trial, spoke in court, stood as witnesses, and won--indeed, he titles an entire chapter: "Women Who Conducted Their Own Cases before Magistrates on Their Own Behalf or Others."[11] This was regarded as scandalous, of course, necessitating the standardized Praetorian Edict (issued every year) to include a prohibition against women representing others in court (beginning sometime in the first century A.D.)--yet even this expressly allowed women to continue representing themselves, as defendants or (in most civil and even some criminal cases) as prosecutors.[12]


This is very interesting, and adds to some thoughts of my own, however, my thought, coupled with some research, is taking me in a completely different direction then either Holding or Carrier.

From start to finish, the bible and it's stories are a religion work. A religious work like any other written work, such as fiction, biographies, secular law, etc., have an agenda. The stories perhaps once oral, are now set in stone as a written work, let the work/agenda begin. The bible is thus the frame, and it simply needs a picture in order for it to be the completed piece of craft from once it began. In order for it to become true, as the truth, it needs life. The authors of these works hope it is me, hope it is you. The people who first crafted and then practice this written work are determined to make it so, and they don't care if we go to heaven or hell.

It is a mind game, a power play, that begins before we were conceived in our mothers womb, like it or not, agree with it or not, it is what it is.

One can't agree or disagree without knowledge of history, so as to the ascertain the agenda and what is actually true. That is why it is important to the fundamentalist agenda to dumb us down, as you have shown in your thread in C&SS concerning the Texas School Board rewriting history.


Jesus specifically asserts in Matthew that he has not come to abolish the law of Moses, but to fulfill it, fulfill being a key word as to intention, especially later in the works of Paul a Jewish/roman citizen. One could ask, what law was that? To which the answer could be, the Old Testament. Which Old Testament? And important question to ask is, why is Pilate and other Romans brought into the story? Do they too have an Old Testament too? And how are those two Old Testament similar, if not the same? Is this the agenda of Jesus, to make them the same, one? One God? Or, is this the agenda of Paul? Old testament, new testament converged into one new testament? One God?

I am very much interested in this idea of One God/Monotheism. What does it mean?

Please note that many of the quotes provided below are contained within the writings of Paul.

Carrier and Holding, as do other scholars, seek to prove whether or not there was a Jesus, or so it seems to me from my limited readings in regards to both on these forums. I am taking a different approach, and presume that there was, even if only in theory. From there, what was Jesus' agenda? Who were his supporters?

Below, please find some interesting quotes from an article

http://web.mac.com/heraklia/Dominae/...men/index.html


Quote:
From the time of the XII Tables (ca. 451-450 BC), Roman law demanded that all women be placed firmly under male custody and control.
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The father of the Roman household had unparalleled authority over his wife, sons, daughters, and slaves. If he saw fit, he could have them killed for infractions of moral law, as the first Brutus murdered his sons for betraying Rome. Sons were never fully emancipated in law and action as long as their father lived.
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If you should take your wife in adultery, you may with impunity put her to death without a trial; but if you should commit adultery or indecency, she must not presume to lay a finger on you, nor does the law allow it."
1. Livy, quoting Cato the Elder, History of Ro
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Certainly if he chose to divorce her, he was forced to return her dowry to her largely intact, a considerable expense. When Cicero divorced his difficult wife, Terentia, he struggled to return the dowry with a deduction for his son's educational expenses. Although there were specifications for a husband divorcing his wife, a wife could divorce her husband only in severely limited circumstances, and if she did so, due to the concept that children belonged to the father's side of the family, she almost invariably lost possession of her children, who remained in the father's household. This rule derived from the obvious need of men for heirs to whom they could pass their property, and Roman law generally favored property and stability over tender notions of maternal rights. Society approved the pronouncements of the writer Dionysius that marriages endured longer and were healthier when the "wives had no other refuge" than their husbands: Cato the Censor noted that a husband's absolute control over his wife benefited both his marriage and the Roman state.
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The concept of the once-married woman (univira) who never remarried after widowhood was universally admired well into the Imperial period. As Valerius Maximus notes, it was thought that "...the mind of a married woman was particularly loyal and uncorrupted if it knew not how to leave the bed on which she had surrendered her virginity..."
I am not sure if the above quotes are too many, and in violation of copy right, and ask that they be deleted if found to be so.


My argument would be that this new religion and it’s supporters were indeed attempting to upset the current Roman Empire, as laid out in the Carrier quote that you have provided, and that this continued for some time. Perhaps the religion would be suppressed, and then resurrect itself over a period of time, resulting in the persecutions that were said to take place at that time.


I also believe that contained within the stories of the NT are those who began practicing the teachings of this old/new movement and that the women would not have been allowed to testify. Therefore in order to convict them, the false ending to Mark had to be added.

Iow’s, imbedded within any work of fiction are historical truths, along with metaphors, and allegories for good or ill intentions. This story is purposefully filled with them.
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Old 07-20-2009, 10:56 AM   #218
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...From start to finish, the bible and it's stories are a religion work. A religious work like any other written work, such as fiction, biographies, secular law, etc., have an agenda. The stories perhaps once oral, are now set in stone as a written work, let the work/agenda begin. The bible is thus the frame, and it simply needs a picture in order for it to be the completed piece of craft from once it began. In order for it to become true, as the truth, it needs life. The authors of these works hope it is me, hope it is you. The people who first crafted and then practice this written work are determined to make it so, and they don't care if we go to heaven or hell.

It is a mind game, a power play, that begins before we were conceived in our mothers womb, like it or not, agree with it or not, it is what it is...
I think you're assuming a lot. The Old Testament is a heterogeneous collection of writings spanning several hundred years. The collection as we have it dates to the 1st/2nd C rabbis who finalized the Hebrew canon and decided which text family would be official (which became the Masoretic text). Theirs is only one perspective, we can't assume that the Jews saw their tradition the same way in all times and places before the 1st C.

You seem to be of the conspiracy theory mindset, which has its place I guess, but the fact that the Mosaic tradition lasted so long suggests it had some positive value to the Israelites. Maybe for a small nation with limited resources the Torah was the best they could come up with. If their scriptures hadn't been adopted by catholic Christians the Jews might have disappeared from history altogether, at least in the West (the Sumerians were forgotten until modern times in spite of their tremendous contributions to Mesopotamian history).
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Old 07-20-2009, 01:11 PM   #219
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bacht
I think you're assuming a lot. You seem to be of the conspiracy theory mindset, which has its place I guess
Assuming? I am not assuming anything. To assume something is to do so without evidence. I have presented my evidence. And I believe that I can further support that evidence within the text (scriptures) themselves.

Conclusions are derived from facts. I have presented facts. Rather then drawing conclusions of your own reason and logic, to refute my argument, you have resorted to calling me a conspiracy theorist .................. would this be a strawman argument? Not sure. I never seem to get those different arguments committed to memory.


Quote:
The Old Testament is a heterogeneous collection of writings spanning several hundred years. The collection as we have it dates to the 1st/2nd C rabbis who finalized the Hebrew canon and decided which text family would be official (which became the Masoretic text). Theirs is only one perspective, we can't assume that the Jews saw their tradition the same way in all times and places before the 1st C.
And? What we can’t assume is that Christianity, is an new religion. It is one of many sects of that time, if I understand correctly. We can’t assume that these were not Jews, or that there weren’t radical Jews involved, nor can we assume that there wasn’t Romans in agreement with this fundamental sect. After all, the Romans have a history not dissimilar to this particular other fundamental sects, peoples, nations of the time, including the Jewish people. I think it is a huge mistake to lay this at the Jewish feet, as Jewish origin.

Having said that, the Jewish writings contain similar stories within their texts.

This from the Jewish Encylopedia.

http://www.jewishencyclopedia.com/vi...0ben%20shetach

Quote:
Simeon ben Shetach

Of Simeon's enactments two were of especial importance. One consisted in the restriction of divorces, which were then of frequent occurrence. Simeon arranged that the husband might use the prescribed marriage gift ("ketubah") in his business, but that his entire fortune should be held liable for it (Yer. Ket. viii. 32c). Inasmuch as a husband of small means could ill afford to withdraw a sum of money from his business, Simeon's ruling tended to check hasty divorces. The other important act referred to the instruction of the young.

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Simeon was exceedingly strict in legal matters. Upon one occasion he sentenced to death eighty women in Ashkelon who had been convicted of sorcery. The relatives of these women, filled with a desire for revenge, brought false witnesses against Simeon's son, whom they accused of a crime which involved capital punishment; and as a result of this charge he was sentenced to death. On the way to the place of execution the son protested his innocence in so pathetic a manner that even the witnesses were moved to admit the falsity of their testimony. When the judges were about to liberate the condemned man he called their attention to the fact that, according to the Law, a witness must not be believed when he withdraws a former statement, and he said to his father, "If you desire that the welfare of Israel shall be strengthened by thy hand, then consider me as a beam on which you may tread without regret" (Yer. Sanh. 23b). The execution then proceeded. This sad event was probably the reason why Simeon issued a warning that witnesses should always be carefully cross-questioned (Ab. i. 9).
WTF?

Quote:
Simeon's fairness toward non-Jews is illustrated by the following narrative: Simeon lived in humble circumstances, supporting himself and his family by conducting a small business in linen goods. Once his pupils presented him with an ass which they had purchased from an Arab. On the neck of the animal they found a costly jewel, whereupon they joyously told their master that he might now cease toiling since the proceeds from the jewel would make him wealthy. Simeon, however, replied that the Arab had sold them the ass only, and not the jewel; and he returned the gem to the Arab, who exclaimed, "Praised be the God of Simeon ben She?a?!" (Yer. B. M. ii. 8c; Deut. R. iii. 5).
Testing the waters. I believe that this is not dissimilar to the women at the tomb.

Perhaps it is that the women were the guards, in that the word used means to see, observe, and as Joseph W so correctly points out, it was the women seeing and observing.


Quote:
but the fact that the Mosaic tradition lasted so long suggests it had some positive value to the Israelites.
To which Israelites? To the ones who have been slaughtered because of it, or the ones who lived off the slaughtered, the fat of the land?

I can ask the same about Christians/Catholics, Protestants, and Islamists?


Quote:
Maybe for a small nation with limited resources the Torah was the best they could come up with. If their scriptures hadn't been adopted by catholic Christians the Jews might have disappeared from history altogether,
That is BS. The Catholic and Christians have their own history to partake of, as I have shown, which does not necessarily have anything to do with the Jewish peoples. How do you know that the Romans and later Roman Catholics didn’t influence the Jewish peoples? If you have evidence to the contrary, then show it. Wasn't it the Romans who were out to conquer the world?


Quote:
at least in the West (the Sumerians were forgotten until modern times in spite of their tremendous contributions to Mesopotamian history).
? Out of context for the purpose of my immediate inquiry
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Old 07-20-2009, 01:54 PM   #220
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Perhaps it is that the women were the guards, in that the word used means to see, observe, and as Joseph W so correctly points out, it was the women seeing and observing.
I'd like to see a thread about women's place in the ancient world, but not this one

Your post that I responded to was kind of all over the place, I wasn't trying to deal with all the points you raised, just the idea that the Bible was a tool of conspirators before the Christian era.
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