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Old 09-22-2005, 03:31 PM   #91
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Originally Posted by spin
Good link. :thumbs:

It shows just how vacuous the claim on Aramaic in the nt is. There is almost nothing beyond "talitha kuma" and "abba" (no, not the group) and perhaps a very few others that can be definitely sourced from Aramaic. Try to substantiate any of the examples as definitely coming from Aramaic. You'll be sadly surprised.
Spin you are playing a game.

When actual Aramaic words appear that have simlar words in other languages appear you say .."these words could have come from another language."

When Aramaic words appear that have no other possible source you say we should expect the writer to insert Aramaic words into the text, that's why they are there.

There is nothing wrong with playing devils advocate but that's all you are doing.

All therories need to be tested, other wise what good are they.
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Old 09-22-2005, 03:33 PM   #92
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Pilate - how humungous is the document? Is it online? Feel free to PM me.
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Old 09-22-2005, 03:39 PM   #93
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Pilate - how humungous is the document? Is it online? Feel free to PM me.
What does "PM me" mean?
And what is the policy for size of posting?
I want to be law abiding.

IS THERE ANYONE WHO KNOWS :huh: WHERE I CAN READ ON THE INTERNET:

[B]THE PSEUDO-CLEMENTINE HOMILIES AND RECOGNITIONS?[/B]
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Old 09-22-2005, 03:48 PM   #94
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What does "PM me" mean?
Private message - click on my user name

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And what is the policy for size of posting?
We do not want to waste bandwidth on material that is available on the internet, and there is a limit on the amount of material you can include in a post. I don't know offhand - you might have to try it.

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IS THERE ANYONE WHO KNOWS :huh: WHERE I CAN READ ON THE INTERNET:

THE PSEUDO-CLEMENTINE HOMILIES AND RECOGNITIONS?
Try here:

http://www.ccel.org/fathers2/ANF-08/TOC.htm#TopOfPage
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Old 09-22-2005, 04:28 PM   #95
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And yes, spin has been blaming the "scholars" for creating the Qumran-Essene fiction. It simply does not exist, and there is been plenty for that. A simple search of this forum should do, or you can go to scrollsforum.com to debate it there.
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Old 09-22-2005, 05:23 PM   #96
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Originally Posted by Pilate
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Originally Posted by Spin
This could mean that, unlike Jerusalemites of the time, Galileans spoke Aramaic.
Evidence in the New Testament shows that the Judeans spoke the same language as the Galileans: Jesus (he existed) and his disciples were Galileans. They conversed with to Judeans. They all understood each other.
Remember I was talking about evidence. You need to supply some. I have commented at length about the problems of extracting Aramaic from the nt.

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Originally Posted by Pilate
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Originally Posted by Spin
Neither the DSS which were 85% written in Hebrew -- three different dialects of Hebrew --, nor Josephus agree with this erroneous claim. Josephus tells us he spoke to the people of Jerusalem in the Hebrew language (BJ 6.2.1/6.96).
The DSS are primarily in Hebrew because the Old Testament was written in Hebrew. The Old Testament was written before the Hellenistic era.
Conjecture is not a reasoned response. Biblical Hebrew is not the same dialects used by the new texts from Qumran, so biblical Hebrew is irrelevant to the issue.

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There is nothing in Mk that would indicate that its writer knew a Semitic language, despite the few magic words such as "little girl, come". All he would have needed was the initial input from someone who did.
Yes. But, Mark is likely to have been like Paul. Paul knew Aramaic.
Conjecture.

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Originally Posted by Pilate
Why like Paul? Because the first Hellenist Christians were Hellenist Jews.
Conjecture.

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Originally Posted by Pilate
This is only a speculation based on other historical facts.
Aww, c'mon tell me what those other historical facts are, pretty please. What have I got to do to get facts out of you?

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Originally Posted by Pilate
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If the writer of Mk understood Aramaic, why would he give the mixed form eloi eloi lama sabaxQani, where lama is from Hebrew and should be lemono in Aramaic? Perhaps it was a different dialect? But the logic in Aramaic is the same as that in Hebrew, each are formed from two parts l- "for/to" and Hebr. mh, Aram. mn (see Ezr 5:4) meaning "what/who/(etc)".
There are different possibilities: perhaps a copyist added or changed something.
So, by attacking the scribe, you render the other evidence in the text useless, for how many other such scribal influences in the area are you prepared to conjecture?

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Originally Posted by Pilate
Perhaps Mark did not know, or did not know well enough the Aramaic. One piece of evidence by itself does not prove something. But many pieces together may make a case. I don’t see the importance of this word: does this lead to the claim that Jesus did not speak Aramaic? Or that the Judeans did not peak Aramaic?
You still presuppose Jesus. You need to demonstrate his existence before you can make historical analyses based on him.

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There is no Galileean Aramaic and Judean Aramaic. The difference was just a matter of pronunciation.
But then how would we know from the gospel information?
We know because they conversed. They did not have a problem understanding each other. Let me correct myself: Very likely the Galileans had colloquial words that the Judeans did not understand, and vice versa. (It is like an American conversing with a British or an Australian. I did not know what a “crocodile dundee� is when I first heard it.)
You are assuming the text is a historical document rather than some other type. So far, all conjecture, not one piece of evidence to back up anything you've said.


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Here is an explanation:
From 586 BCE to 331 BCE the Jews were occupied by the Babylonians and the Persians. During that time, most Jews of Palestine and Mesopotamia adopted the Aramaic language (the official language of Babylon) because of their dealings with their captors. Aramaic gradually displaced Hebrew.
You can believe what you want. You aren't explaining anything. You are opining.
“Opining� is when you make a judgment. The Statements above are not judgment calls. They are summarized historical accounts.
When you make a judgment not based on evidence. You still have none. This is endemic. Without evidence you can't say a word that's useful.

Try again, what evidence makes you think that "most Jews of Palestine ... adopted the Aramaic language"? Evidence please.

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Originally Posted by Pilate
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Hebrew remained the sacred language of the Scriptures and it was used only by scribes, priests, or the highly educated Jews. During the Hellenistic era (beginning ca. 331 BCE), Hebrew was the language of the common and uneducated Jews of Palestine. Therefore, it became necessary to translate in the synagogues and at the Temple the Hebrew Scriptures into Aramaic for the common people who could not understand it. This is how the Aramaic Tragums came into existence.
This is the pre-DSS-discovery party line. The DSS have scuttled the lot of it.
Let me restate what I wrote above: Hebrew remained the sacred language of the Scriptures and it was used only by scribes, priests, or the highly educated Jews. During the Hellenistic era (beginning ca. 331 BCE), Aramaic was the language of the common and uneducated Jews of Palestine. (The educated Jews learned Greek.)
It's not like repetition will make it any less conjectural.

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Originally Posted by Pilate
Therefore,
Therefore?? There is no antecedent to justify a "therefore" here.

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Originally Posted by Pilate
... it became necessary to translate in the synagogues and at the Temple the Hebrew Scriptures into Aramaic for the common people who could not understand it. In the beginning the translations were oral. In the synagogues, one person would read aloud the Hebrew Old Testament and then a meturgeman (a professional interpreter) would translate it, orally, into Aramaic. Each meturgeman tried to reproduce the original text. But he did not translate literally because he usually explained the obscure words and obscure verses to prevent misunderstandings.
In the beginning, the Aramaic oral translations were sporadic and undirected. They were left up to individual meturgemen of each community. Consequently, they differed. One factor that contributed to the differences between them was that the original Hebrew text was consonantal (written without vowels). Each reader had to assume the vowels that were missing from the text. The reader’s assumption of the vowels depended upon his understanding of the context. Since each reader understood the context of obscure passages differently, the translations of the meturgemen differed much. During the Talmudic period (the period before the written Targums, during the early Christian Era), the Jews considered the oral translations of the meturgemen as authoritative. (See (Encyclopedia Britannica. article: Targums )

Those translations gained more status after the destruction of the temple in 70 CE, when synagogues replaced the Temple as houses of worship. Out of those translations came the written Aramaic Targums (the Aramaic Old Testament versions), which lack standardization and often assume the form of paraphrase or commentary. (See Cross, Frank Moore, and Shemariahu Talmon, eds., Qumran and the History of the Biblical Text, p. 9.
Well, yes, as I said targums are very poorly attested in the Dead Sea Scrolls, meaning that the targum issue is wasted space, as it is mainly conjecture on your sources' part.

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Originally Posted by Pilate
Quote:
Originally Posted by Spin
The writers of Hebrew in the DSS were practicioners of a spoken language. They were concerned with how the spoken language should be written and devised methods for better representation of the vowels in Hebrew.
It was plainly not a "Sacred language". It was living, in two dialects, with concerns about pronunciation. It was influenced by Aramaic and there were varying degrees of Aramaic intrusion. All indicate that these dialects were used by speech communities.
If Frank Moore, and Shemariahu Talmon don’t know what they are talking about, then I don’t either. Produce the evidence, please.
First you quote stuff you don't understand, then you argue from authority and finally you want me to give you some more evidence! Charming.

One of the best books onthe subject of the Hebrew of the DSS is strangely called "The Hebrew of the Dead Sea Scrolls", by Elisha Qimron. In this book at various places he shows the state of the orthography of the scrolls, which certainly was not the spartan orthography of the Hebrew bible. The scribes attempted to clarify to a public reader of the text just how the words should be pronounced by adding extra WAWs, YODs and ALEPs in order to distinguish between vowel and consonantal uses of these letters. This is an innovation aimed at the spoken word: how do you pronounce the Hebrew? Hebrew only has 22 letters and the three of those I've mentioned served both as vowels and consonants, so, while you are reading the text, it is difficult to distinguish which function each serves, making public reading more difficult. The use of these letters is covered in Qimron pp17-24.

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Originally Posted by Pilate
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Originally Posted by Spin
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Originally Posted by Pilate
“Elyon� means “Most High,� and it is an auxiliary title, which designates El as the highest god of the Canaanite pantheon.
Stop guessing. Elyon is happily used by itself, so it's not an auxiliary anything.
Stop nit-picking on the choice of my words. If you don’t like ‘auxiliary’ call it second.
One may say, “God,� “God Almighty,� or “Almighty� and refer to the same person.
There is no problem there. The problem is your misnomer "auxiliary title".

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Originally Posted by Pilate
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Originally Posted by Spin
However the important evidence from the scrolls is that El Elyon is a popular reference for god from the second century BCE until the downfall of the Hasmoneans, "the priests of the most high" (according to the Assumption of Moses and Hyrcanus II is referred to as the high priest of the most high in Josephus).
The Jews borrowed the name El Elyon from the Canaanites (specifically, the Phoenicians) hundreds of years, or a millennium, before Hyrcanus.
You have no trajectory for this conjecture (even though there were equivalents in much earlier non-Canaanite literature). So, you have no reason to assume that the Jews borrowed it from the Canaanites. Besides, the Jews linguistically were Canaanites.

More unfounded conjecture. Don't you have any evidence up your sleave?

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Originally Posted by Pilate
The Greek word Ypsistos Theos {Septuagint} is just a translation.
Oddly enough there was no debate on this issue. The point was that it locates the use of )l (lywn to the 2nd and early 1st c. BCE. The Genesis Apocryphon which profusely uses the reference in Hebrew dates to the same period. In fact, all the datable material we have which uses )l (lywn is from that period. The evidence says that it is a late form of referring to god in Hebrew.

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Originally Posted by Pilate
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Originally Posted by Spin
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Originally Posted by Pilate
Why are you making this point (no equivalent exists in Jubilees)?
That trite arguments don't deal with the data. If Jubilees were based on Genesis, what happened to the Melkizedek story? Cause it certainly ain't in Jubilees.
The writer of Jubilees had his own agenda and Melchizedek was not part of it.
Would you believe more conjecture? No, really? I thought you were going to try to give some evidence.

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Originally Posted by Pilate
He rewrote the stories of Genesis
This is just another conjecture, though a popular one. Because your religionists place Genesis of higher value than non-biblical texts, it must have been written earlier than the others, which must have been rewritings of Genesis. All conjecture. This is an extremely complex house of cards we are dealing with. You keep siding for the christian conjecture without analysing its merit. You have your head firmly in the lion's mouth. I wish you would remove it: it's rather dangerous.

One thing we know is that texts were often rewritten and added to. The Genesis of the DSS era will havew been no exception. It may easily have been a product of the same source as Jubilees and the Genesis Apocryphon. This is just as valid a conjecture. In fact I did a study of all three where they dalt with the same material and found that one often favoured another part of the time but then the last one at other times. It seems that you cannot establish a priority between these three texts as they are. But this is evidence and from someone on I.I. and not found in your books.

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Originally Posted by Pilate
to fit it to the current dogma:
"[C]urrent" here I gather means "different". Genesis naturally fitted a current dogma, be it uninterested in angels and Satan or before the existence of these things is more conjecture.

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Originally Posted by Pilate
to fit Satan (into the Judaic theological system. Satan does not appear in Genesis.
But what exactly does that indicate?

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Originally Posted by Pilate
It also expounded on the verse of Genesis, about the ‘sons of God,� and turned it into a story about the fallen angels. Angels in Genesis had no names and distinction.
The angels in Jubilees have no names either. The comment about "sons of god" simply assumes a single edition of the text that came to be Genesis, though I've given some evidence to suggest that this may not be the case. Besides, the versions of Genesis from Qumran are too lacunous in ch 6, so one cannot say what the form of the text was at the time.

One thing seems relatively certain: the state of Gen 6 as we have it today is not its original state. It is simply too obscure and assumes too much information that is not stated. This is what makes the approaches of 1 Enoch's watchers and Jubilees more credible in reflecting some of that earlier form.

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Originally Posted by Pilate
After the Jews were exposed to Zoroastrianism, they developed an elaborate system of angelology. The book of Jubilees filled that need.
More scholarly conjecture. Fairly reasonable, but still conjecture. Zoroastrianism has demoted deities to angelic status. Judaism demoted the sons of god.

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Originally Posted by Pilate
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The Essene apocryphal book
Stop spouting rubbish. The "Essene" what?? Essenes were poor people, children of poor, discarded, unwanted and brought up by others. The people of the DSS believed in heredity. Their community leaders were priests, sons of Aaron, sons of Levi. They simply were not Essenes. (I know that every dog and his fleas is blurting Essenes when they come to the DSS, but that's because of the history of mismanagement of the scrolls.)
Some Essenes lived in cities of Judea and others lived in the ‘monastery’ of Qumran, and others in Damascus. The ones who live in the cities married. The one in Qumran were single men. One of their activities was copying the Scrolls.
What you have said is not related to my comments. You are not responding to me. You are rehashing people's opinions (based on sloppy use of Josephus) the which you don't understand the impact of.

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Originally Posted by Pilate
(Blame all the scholars if this is wrong.)
Not all the scholars, just those people who have commitments to the "international team" who botched the management of the scrolls -- and to have access to the scrolls you had to suck up to the international team and their errors.

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Originally Posted by Pilate
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Originally Posted by Spin
You've got all the space you need, if you have something to say.
Are you sure? The moderator will allow me to post a humongous document? And will you and others have the patience to read it?
I'm only interested if it's your work. This is why I said you've got all the space you need if you have something to say. But, I guess you're ultimately right. If it is truly humongous, then we'll see what the moderation suggests.

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Originally Posted by Pilate
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There is no evidence that anything was written before the exile.
I leave this issue to the language experts and archaeologists.
Archaeology can't help unless it turns up actual documents. There has been one item which was touted as a brief citation from Numbers (IIRC), which of course begs the question which came first the citation or Numbers.

Language experts will have difficulty as they have no absolute markers.

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Originally Posted by Pilate
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When was the time of Jesus, if there was no Jesus? The term "son of man" doesn't occur in patristic literature until the mid 2nd c. CE.
The claim that Jesus did not exist is very extreme.
This is not an argument. You assume a substantive position, you have a responsibility to make it substantial. You need to show rather than assume.

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Originally Posted by Pilate
In reality this claim is AN ARGUMENT BASED ON FAITH: FAITH IN THE ONE WHO IS MAKING THE ARGUMENT.
Please stop shouting. You are just talking to yourself, because it is unrelated to the problem before you. If you want to talk about a historical Jesus, you must demonstrate that there was one. Otherwise anyone can introduce any item into history without any validation whatsoever.

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Originally Posted by Pilate
You need more faith to believe that Jesus did not exist than the faith that he existed.
This has nothing to do with faith. It is about scholarship. You demonstrate and don't assume.

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Originally Posted by Pilate
Remember: everything in moderation.
Remember that scholarship has rules that make it function. Forget the rules and you can't say anything useful.


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Jesus was born of human beings. Jesus was the prototype of God (the Logos).
Jesus called himself "the son of man." The righteousness of God dwelled in Jesus.
When you read literature, do you assume that it central figures are historical? When you can demonstrate that the gospel literature is more than literature I might listen to you.
Spin here is a clue on how to read mythology, the Bible, or even ancient historical writings (like Josephus’): it is not all or none.
You have to decipher the history out of those documents. It takes a lot of comparative analysis. It is not like engineering. Unfortunately it is not precise.
You have really underdone yourself with this maxi-post. Almost not one shred of evidence. Perhaps not even one.

Pilate, the task about reconstructing the past involves making sure steps. This means giving evidence to back up your claims. The christian apologist doesn't have this responsibility, but then is unable to communicate anything of use through lack of methodology. The reason why scholarship exists is to analyse the evidence for and against hypotheses and weigh up whether they are, can be, or cannot be, correct.

To be a scholarly infidel you need scholarship of your own and not be dependent on the enemy to give you useful information. This is putting your head in the lion's mouth.


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Old 09-22-2005, 05:37 PM   #97
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Remember I was talking about evidence. You need to supply some. I have commented at length about the problems of extracting Aramaic from the nt.




spin
You have not commented at length.

You sniped and made various claims that showed your ignorance of Aramaic.
You thought bar was the meant "sons" in aramaic.

If I hadn't corrected you your worshippers hear would have no doubt believed you.

Not to mention you ignored my recent post above.

You are just playing a game.
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Old 09-22-2005, 05:54 PM   #98
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You sniped and made various claims that showed your ignorance of Aramaic. You thought bar was the meant "sons" in aramaic.
Actually, didn't he say bar was son in Aramaic and not ben? Regardless, judge, your "proficiency" in Aramaic has been so far worse, to call spin out on a mistake, even two, would be hypocritical. Since you have already done that, on numerous occassions (one can merely search this forum to produce many, many threads) you have already in my view damaged your reputation enough so that anything you say is automatically nullified without external corroboration. Have you even looked at this thread yet? What have you to say for yourself, judge? :down:
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Old 09-22-2005, 06:31 PM   #99
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Actually, didn't he say bar was son in Aramaic and not ben? Regardless, judge, your "proficiency" in Aramaic has been so far worse, to call spin out on a mistake, even two, would be hypocritical.
Of course it's not hypocritical. Spin made some basic errors, I pointed them out.
No one else here did.

Yes we all make mistakes but according to your logic we should never point them out unless we are perect. :rolling:

I'm sure Spin is a big boy and can handle it. <sigh>
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Old 09-22-2005, 06:43 PM   #100
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:sigh: Way for judge to miss the point again.
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