Chris Weimer

One of judge's defense for the Peshitta Primacy theory of his is that in the cases where the Peshitta gives two Aramaic phrases, represented in the Greek as one Aramaic phrase and one Greek phrase. Besides the obvious notion that the Greek wouldn't translate both into Greek, nor the impracticality of translating into a different dialect only some of Jesus' Aramaic, but not all of it, Maurice Casey in "Aramaic Idiom and the Son of Man Problem" Journal for the Study of the New Testament quotes E. M. Cook's "A New Perspective of the Language of Onkelos and Jonathan" in The Aramaic Bible: Targums in the Historical Context eds. D.R.G. Beattie and M.J. McNamara 1994:
If I understand this correctly, there isn't much of a difference that would require a translation from one dialect to another.

Toto

Aramaic Idiom and the Son of Man Problem: A Response to Owen and Shepherd
Journal for the Study of the New Testament, Sep 2002; 25: 3 - 32 abstract

judge

Chris what do you imagine this to mean?

I actually doubt my previous explanation is not entirely correct on reflection though but obviously at times an explanation is needed from one region to another.

Does someone from scotland always understand someone from new zealand?

Come on...at times things will be said differently.

What is it that makes you think you understand it correctly?

Do you really imagine that Assyrian Aramaic which would have had a greater influence in Galilee would never ever require and explanation or interpretation when compared with Imperial mesopotamiam Aramaic (from babylon) ?

Do you really imagine this?

Chris Weimer

Read carefully.

I seriously doubt it where you pointed out, but of course, not knowing what the differences between the Aramaic "dialects" you wouldn't be one to say, now would you?

Cheryl

Apparently the Galilean accent was very deep and guttural. This was part of why John and James were called the Sons of Thunder, for their powerful speaking style and tone.

Just a thought - was never very good at diphthong dementia.

Cheryl

Toto

Do you have any source for this? The usual interpretation of "Sons of Thunder" is that it refers to Castor and Polydeuces, the Dioscuri, the sons of the god of thunder, Zeus.

Cheryl

They were under the Romans influence and authority so I don't know how the Greeks got into the name game.. Luke 9:54 refers to it meaning their quick tempers and impulsivity. The Boanerges (Sons of Thunder) title was given to John and James by God. It is from an article I wrote. Your tone seems less than friendly so that is the end of this conversation for me.

gregor

Whaaa?
Someone posts an unusual claim that seemed odd. Then claims a godly fiat, reference to personal authority, and then runs away?

Welcome to the forum . . . and goodbye.

Toto

Cheryl lists as her homepage Tarot Canada, so I suspect that we may not be dealing from the same deck, as it were.

Luk 9:54 — And when his disciples James and John saw [this], they said, Lord, wilt thou that we command fire to come down from heaven, and consume them, even as Elias did?

I don't find any necessary reference here to guttural speech.