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Old 11-14-2010, 09:17 PM   #1
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Default Translation help: Matthew 3:2 [repentence]

I am hoping someone can help me with some Greek and Latin translation.

It deal with Matthew 3:2 -- a passage that confounded and deeply affected both Erasmus and Luther

et dicens paenitentiam agite adpropinquavit enim regnum*caelorum

and


[καὶ]*λέγων,*Μετανοεῖτε,*ἤγγικε *γὰρ*ἡ*βασιλεία*τῶν*οὐραν ῶν.*


I understand it all boils down to the difference in translation about "do penance" vs. "be penitent." I would just like to see an accurate translation for myself to see the difference.

Thank you!
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Old 11-14-2010, 09:35 PM   #2
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There are a variety of translations and commentary here:

http://bible.cc/matthew/3-2.htm

Quote:
Originally Posted by Barnes
There are two words in the New Testament translated "repentance," one of which denotes a change of mind, or a reformation of life; and the other, sorrow or regret that sin has been committed. The word used here is the former, calling the Jews to a change of life, or a reformation of conduct. In the time of John, the nation had become extremely wicked and corrupt, perhaps more so than at any preceding period. Hence, both he and Christ began their ministry by calling the nation to repentance.
Quote:
Originally Posted by Clarke
Repent - Μετανοειτε. This was the matter of the preaching. The verb μετανοεω is either compounded of μετα, after, and νοειν to understand, which signifies that, after hearing such preaching, the sinner is led to understand, that the way he has walked in was the way of misery, death, and hell. Or the word may be derived from μετα after, and ανοια, madness, which intimates that the whole life of a sinner is no other than a continued course of madness and folly: and if to live in a constant opposition to all the dictates of true wisdom; to wage war with his own best interests in time and eternity; to provoke and insult the living God; and, by habitual sin, to prepare himself only for a state of misery, be evidences of insanity, every sinner exhibits them plentifully. It was from this notion of the word, that the Latins termed repentance resipiscentia, a growing wise again, from re and sapere; or, according to Tertullian, Resipiscentia, quasi receptio mentis ad se, restoring the mind to itself: Contra Marcion, lib. ii. Repentance, then, implies that a measure of Divine wisdom is communicated to the sinner, and that he thereby becomes wise to salvation. That his mind, purposes, opinions, and inclinations, are changed; and that, in consequence, there is a total change in his conduct. It need scarcely be remarked, that, in this state, a man feels deep anguish of soul, because he has sinned against God, unfitted himself for heaven, and exposed his soul to hell. Hence, a true penitent has that sorrow, whereby he forsakes sin, not only because it has been ruinous to his own soul, but because it has been offensive to God.
What difference would this make? Do you think anyone would call for being sorry for wrongdoing, without the implication that it should not be repeated?
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Old 11-14-2010, 10:25 PM   #3
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it makes a difference on how to handle the wrong doing.

do penance = prayer, fasts, indulgences, pilgrimages etc

be penitent = something in the heart, something that cannot be "measured"



and then that would mean that the "measurers" are unnecessary and the Catholic hierarchy is unnecessary.
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Old 11-16-2010, 12:31 PM   #4
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That seems to be one of the fundamental disputes at the heart of Christianity - faith versus works. I don't know that a translator will help resolve it.
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