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02-02-2010, 05:30 PM | #1 |
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Josephus's use of terms
In Antiq. XX, Josephus makes reference to a "Jesus, who is termed Christ" and a "Jesus, son of Damneus" in one and the same section. Can anyone here come up with two other Josephus examples of similar proximity in which two different descriptive catch phrases are self-evidently applied to the same person? Please?
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02-03-2010, 01:34 AM | #2 |
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Why do you think that whoever wrote “Jesus, who was called Christ” meant to imply that such a person was a high priest?
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02-03-2010, 12:30 PM | #3 | |
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Consequently, I'm asking if anyone here can come up with an answer to my question: "In Antiq. XX, Josephus makes reference to a "Jesus, who is termed Christ" and a "Jesus, son of Damneus" in one and the same section. Can anyone here come up with two other Josephus examples of similar proximity in which two different descriptive catch phrases are self-evidently applied to the same person? Please?" That's my question. It's time to refine it further -- "In Antiq. XX, Josephus makes reference to a "Jesus, who is termed Christ" and a "Jesus, son of Damneus" in one and the same section, but a sentence or two apart, with no clear indication that the one harks back to the other. Can anyone here come up with two other Josephus examples of similar proximity in which two different descriptive catch phrases are adopted in separate but close sentences without comment or reference to the alternate term? Please?" Actually, Josephus here makes no clear indication, one way or the other, that he is harking back to the "Christ" figure at all when suddenly bringing in a "son of Damneus" who -- yes -- did become a High Priest. Consequently, if the answer to my question is "Yes", then the (possible) conclusion is that the "Christ" term and the Damneides term might -- might -- reference the same person. But if the answer proves to be "no", then the (more likely) conclusion is that the two terms reference two different people. Chaucer |
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02-03-2010, 12:41 PM | #4 |
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I'm not sure what this would prove. The people who think that the Jesus "called Christ" is the same as the Jesus son of Damneus, generally think that the phrase "called Christ" was a marginal note inserted by a Christian scribe, and not Josephus' original words. spin has a detailed argument for this.
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02-03-2010, 04:22 PM | #5 | |
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And this interpolation argument also abuts the problem of yet another coincidence: the apparent tradition that one James just happens to be the unhappy half of this brother pair who gets executed directly by the Temple priesthood in both cases. Suddenly, with the coincidence of two brother pairs identically named matching up to another coincidental tradition that the James half of the pair just happens to be the one always executed directly by the Temple priesthood, we're confronted by a double coincidence instead of just a single one. So we go from the not-too-likely to the highly improbable. Furthermore, if one supposes that reliable references to a James/Jesus pair born to a carpenter called Joseph seem relatively scanty, then surely any other references to a James son of Damneus seem practically nonexistent! I reiterate my main question for this thread: "In Antiq. XX, Josephus makes reference to a "Jesus, who is termed Christ" and a "Jesus, son of Damneus" in one and the same section, but a sentence or two apart, with no clear indication that the one harks back to the other. Can anyone here come up with two other Josephus examples of similar proximity in which two different descriptive catch phrases are adopted in separate but close sentences without comment or reference to the alternate term? Please?" Thank you, Chaucer |
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02-15-2010, 07:34 PM | #6 | ||
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Thank you, Chaucer |
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02-15-2010, 10:39 PM | #7 | |
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If you think that anything from this era is that settled so that you can discard one hypothesis so definitively, you must not understand anything. |
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02-16-2010, 01:04 AM | #8 | ||
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Chaucer |
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02-16-2010, 01:55 AM | #9 |
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Marginal gloss referring to James, BotL.
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02-16-2010, 08:02 AM | #10 |
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James the Just - Ιακωβος Χρηστος?
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