Freethought & Rationalism Archive

Clivedurdle · 03-03-2005, 10:14 AM

Posted by Ted in Mark Chiasm thread.

Could someone explain what this means? And secondly, apart from Jesus Mystery stuff, what are the agreed relationships between Greek thinking, stories and gods etc and xianity? Did xianity kill off the gods and heroes?

Have we in the West inherited a demythologised world view, so that science is the next step from many gods to one to none? (I know, depending where the discussion goes it might belong in GRD!)

Chris Weimer · 03-03-2005, 10:21 AM

It means that Mark took Homeric structures and used his story on the top of that.

Julian · 03-03-2005, 11:04 AM

There seems to be a very good case for Mark to be derived from the Homeric epics as laid out in this book:

The Homeric Epics and the Gospel of Mark

I found his arguments to be fairly convincing but not 100% so.

Julian

Roland · 03-03-2005, 12:06 PM

I read the book, too, and also found it fairly convincing. The problem is that I also find convincing books (like "Gospel Fictions") that point out where Mark drew inspiration from the OT. At some point, though, it starts seeming like too much. I mean, just how self-consious can a writer be when putting together his own literary work?

Clivedurdle · 03-03-2005, 12:14 PM

The Amazon reviews got a response from J P Holding! Must be saying something right!

Vorkosigan · 03-03-2005, 02:49 PM

Quote:

Originally Posted by Roland

I read the book, too, and also found it fairly convincing. The problem is that I also find convincing books (like "Gospel Fictions") that point out where Mark drew inspiration from the OT. At some point, though, it starts seeming like too much. I mean, just how self-consious can a writer be when putting together his own literary work?

Very. But I don't think Mark used Homer. If you compare the areas where the writer of Mark could have drawn on the OT, or on Homer, you'll find that on the whole the OT better accounts for the details.

Vorkosigan

03-03-2005, 10:14 AM	#1
Clivedurdle Contributor Join Date: Mar 2003 Location: London UK Posts: 16,024	Mark used Homer as a hypotext Posted by Ted in Mark Chiasm thread. Could someone explain what this means? And secondly, apart from Jesus Mystery stuff, what are the agreed relationships between Greek thinking, stories and gods etc and xianity? Did xianity kill off the gods and heroes? Have we in the West inherited a demythologised world view, so that science is the next step from many gods to one to none? (I know, depending where the discussion goes it might belong in GRD!)

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03-03-2005, 10:21 AM	#2
Chris Weimer Veteran Member Join Date: Jun 2004 Location: none Posts: 9,879	It means that Mark took Homeric structures and used his story on the top of that.

03-03-2005, 11:04 AM	#3
Julian Veteran Member Join Date: Feb 2004 Location: Washington, DC (formerly Denmark) Posts: 3,789	There seems to be a very good case for Mark to be derived from the Homeric epics as laid out in this book: The Homeric Epics and the Gospel of Mark I found his arguments to be fairly convincing but not 100% so. Julian

03-03-2005, 12:06 PM	#4
Roland Senior Member Join Date: Mar 2003 Location: California Posts: 748	I read the book, too, and also found it fairly convincing. The problem is that I also find convincing books (like "Gospel Fictions") that point out where Mark drew inspiration from the OT. At some point, though, it starts seeming like too much. I mean, just how self-consious can a writer be when putting together his own literary work?

03-03-2005, 12:14 PM	#5
Clivedurdle Contributor Join Date: Mar 2003 Location: London UK Posts: 16,024	The Amazon reviews got a response from J P Holding! Must be saying something right!

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