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Old 01-14-2010, 04:23 PM   #41
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mm, assuming your points are relevant to the question in my post, you are claiming a VERY late authorship of the synoptic gospels (which would essentially make them complete forgeries).
That's a very astute observation, and quite correct. I in fact follow the written opinion of Emperor Julian, who wrote that he was convinced that the fabrication of the christians was a fiction of men composed by wickedness.

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Perhaps there were a LOT of gospels and the ones that just happened to fit circumstances in the 4th century were given priority? Perhaps previously circulated gospels were modified in the 4th century...so a partial forgery. What are you claiming?
I am claiming that the evidence available suggests these three things:

(1) the new testament canon was fabricated between 312 and 324
(2) the new testament apocrypha (ie: the non canonical gnostic gospels, etc) were authored between 325 and 336 CE as a reaction to the NT canon.
(3) the controversy over (a) the inauthentic fictional nature of the NT canon, and (b) the seditious heretical nature of the NT Gnostic Gospels (which are Greek satires of the canon) was suppressed by the orthodox 4th and 5th century imperially sponsored christian ecclesiastical historians.

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You are provide a good motive but no concrete mechanism.
The concrete mechanism was the malevolent and fascist supreme imperial power weilded by Constantine during his rule, especially from 324 CE (when he became the supreme military ruler) onwards. The emperor wanted to forcibly unite the empire to HIS CONCEPTION OF A UNIFIED RELIGION. But Constantine was an uneducated gangster.

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I asked specifically for assumptions about authorship of the synoptics in order to understand speculations about the apocalyptic predictions of Jesus in the synoptics and (to keep this on-topic) to get some understanding of how Jesus' portrayal (by the synoptic authors) lined up with the notion of the Jews' expected messiah.
Constantine IMO literary hijacked the Hebrew Bible.
The Jewish scripture were hijacked in an imperial fabrication of the new testament.
The Jews had no say in this whatsoever, and have regretted it ever since.

Nobody appears to understand that the loss of the Jewish temple at Masada represented the typical ends of all other "Barbarian resistance" against Roman taxation and military dominion in the early epoch. One million Gallic celts were killed by Julius Caesar and one miliion were enslaved by him.

However in Constantine's epoch, the Greek temples were utterly destroyed by Constantine's "Christians". People may think that this was very regretable that the Greek civilisation was trashed by Constantine, but remain focussed on the Jewish temple. Why? Why? Why? (Because they are stuck like flies on flypaper within the bullshit story presented by Eusebius)

When the Christian civilisation appeared, the Greek civilisation was destroyed by the imperial christians. This is what the evidence tells us. The evidence tells us that a huge controversy existed in the Roman empire throughout the 4th century, but that the persecution of intolerant militant Christians eventually "harmonised" this controversy by the sword and by censorship and anathemas and draconian imperial laws.

Evidence indicated that 4th century Christianity did not commence as a religion of peace. It commenced as a political tool and cult fabricated by imperial design.

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apocalyptic predictions of Jesus in the synoptics
In the 4th century the greeks were the gentiles being "converted".
The Greek temples were going DOWN while the Christian basilicas were going UP.
The END-TIMES of the Greek (Gentile) civilisation was physically at hand..
If the knowledge of the Greek civilisation had not been removed from the Roman empire and handed to the Arabs it would not have been preserved.
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Old 01-14-2010, 09:15 PM   #42
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...
I am claiming that the evidence available suggests these three things:
You've been claiming this for a long time but still have no evidence.


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...The Jewish scripture were hijacked in an imperial fabrication of the new testament.
The Jews had no say in this whatsoever, and have regretted it ever since.

Nobody appears to understand that the loss of the Jewish temple at Masada represented the typical ends of all other "Barbarian resistance" against Roman taxation and military dominion in the early epoch. One million Gallic celts were killed by Julius Caesar and one miliion were enslaved by him.
Jewish Temple where?

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However in Constantine's epoch, the Greek temples were utterly destroyed by Constantine's "Christians". People may think that this was very regretable that the Greek civilisation was trashed by Constantine, but remain focussed on the Jewish temple. Why? Why? Why? (Because they are stuck like flies on flypaper within the bullshit story presented by Eusebius)
Greek civilization was not trashed when the Temples were destroyed, just as Judaism was not destroyed when the Temple was leveled.

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When the Christian civilisation appeared, the Greek civilisation was destroyed by the imperial christians. This is what the evidence tells us. ...
Still no evidence.

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apocalyptic predictions of Jesus in the synoptics
In the 4th century the greeks were the gentiles being "converted".
The Greek temples were going DOWN while the Christian basilicas were going UP.
The END-TIMES of the Greek (Gentile) civilisation was physically at hand..
If the knowledge of the Greek civilisation had not been removed from the Roman empire and handed to the Arabs it would not have been preserved.
This is totally off topic. Please stop trying to ride your hobby horse in this thread.
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Old 01-15-2010, 06:10 AM   #43
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Good info as always, s_n_m.

You failed to address the (apparently too subtle) point of my last post. Let me re-state the point sans details. The difference in language used between Daniel and the synoptics might be a clue to help date the synoptics. Our assumption (for purpose of discussion) is that the synoptics were written after 70 and before 135.

To escape the wrath of Mods, let me point out that the dating of the gospels is critical for understanding the way that the gospels portrayed Jesus with respect to the expected messiah of the Jews. The synoptic gospels (almost) clearly portray an anti-messiah (I'll only use the term anti-christ if necessary to stay on topic). Let me also point out to the Mods that this thread has largely died other than this discussion (which still kinda relates to the OP).

All, if you think that the synoptics were written (a bit) after 70 and before 135, please tell me what conclusions can be drawn about the different language used between Daniel and the synoptics...see my previous post.
I don't see what the difference in language between Daniel and Mark has to do with dating Mark. First of all, Daniel was written in Hebrew/Aramaic with post-exile Hellenistic influence, while Mark was written in Greek - either by a Roman Greek or a Hellenized Jew. Daniel was also written almost 300 years before Mark.

I only pointed out the similarities between the two because Daniel was writing about contemporary events under the guise of having them predicted by a figure in the past, and the same theme might have been used by Mark.
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Old 01-15-2010, 12:51 PM   #44
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In 135 Roman soldiers did surround Jerusalem and only won due to implementing a scorched earth policy which prevented the Jews in Jerusalem from being able to get food or necessary supplies. Almost everything that can be used to allude to the events in 70 in Mark can also be used to allude to the events in 132-135. Granted, it was only Jesus' prediction about the destruction in Jerusalem that was the only marker, then it could go either way. But like I said, there are quite a bit of 2nd century anachronisms that push things towards a 2nd century composition; anachronisms that wouldn't be used by a contemporary of the destruction in 70.

Maybe a middle ground would be a description of the Kitos War?
Do we have solid evidence that Bar Kochba and his forces ever succeeded in capturing/liberating Jerusalem at all ?

Given the shortage of rebel coinage found in Jerusalem itself, a number of scholars doubt that the rebels ever succeeded in occupying Jerusalem.

Andrew Criddle
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Old 01-15-2010, 03:56 PM   #45
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I don't see what the difference in language between Daniel and Mark has to do with dating Mark. First of all, Daniel was written in Hebrew/Aramaic with post-exile Hellenistic influence, while Mark was written in Greek - either by a Roman Greek or a Hellenized Jew. Daniel was also written almost 300 years before Mark.

I only pointed out the similarities between the two because Daniel was writing about contemporary events under the guise of having them predicted by a figure in the past, and the same theme might have been used by Mark.
I have only looked at the English translations. I don't think it's that cut and dried what language the synoptic writers knew Daniel in. Assume for a moment that Matthew, Mark, and Luke all had the same source material from Daniel.

Matthew said an abomination of desolation would be in the holy place
Mark said an abomination of desolation would be where it ought not be
Luke said there would be armies around Jerusalem when it's desolation was near.

They came up with different things from the same source material. My comment was they each spun the material they had a bit to produce what they felt was the most likely to come true prophecy...and that could be due to the circumstances going on when they each wrote. I'll leave it at that.
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Old 01-15-2010, 09:13 PM   #46
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The History Channel seems to have gone from being the Hitler/Third Reich Channel to the UFO/Ghost/Bible Prophecy Channel

Let's not forget Ax Men, Ice Road Truckers and Modern Marvels.

The History Channel needs a lot more history and a lot less bullshit.
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Old 01-15-2010, 10:01 PM   #47
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Wasn't Revelations by John based on Hebrew Scripture or the Septuagint and written after NERO was dead?
There was a common popular belief that Domitian was a reincarnation of Nero (or was Nero in disguise). This appears to have been a beleif subscribed to by the author of Revelation (also iterated in the whole dying, and resurrected head thing).

666 was a numerical anagram for Nero. The "Beast" was the Roman Emperor (in any given iteration). The "Whore" was Rome. The branding of numbers on the hands or foreheads in order to buy or sell was allusion to the branding of slaves (who were typically branded on those areas), and was a metaphor to Jews/Christians being "enslaved" by having to use the graven image of the Emperor to buy and sell.


It's Revelation, by the way. Singlar, not plural. Don't worry, it's an incredibly common mistake, even by educated and intelligent people such as yourself.
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Old 01-16-2010, 01:43 PM   #48
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Wasn't Revelations by John based on Hebrew Scripture or the Septuagint and written after NERO was dead?
There was a common popular belief that Domitian was a reincarnation of Nero (or was Nero in disguise). This appears to have been a beleif subscribed to by the author of Revelation (also iterated in the whole dying, and resurrected head thing).
I can't find any reference to Nero or Domitian in Revelation.

The author of Revelation appears to have used the books of Genesis, Exodus, Leviticus, Numbers, Deuteronomy, 1&2 Kings, Isaiah, Psalms, Proverbs, Joel, Jeremiah, Hosea, Ezekiel, Daniel, Zechariah, and Micah to assemble his Revelation.

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Originally Posted by Diogenes the Cynic
It's Revelation, by the way. Singlar, not plural. Don't worry, it's an incredibly common mistake, even by educated and intelligent people such as yourself.
Do you mean "singular"?
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Old 01-16-2010, 05:52 PM   #49
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Originally Posted by aa5874 View Post
Wasn't Revelations by John based on Hebrew Scripture or the Septuagint and written after NERO was dead?
There was a common popular belief that Domitian was a reincarnation of Nero (or was Nero in disguise). This appears to have been a beleif subscribed to by the author of Revelation (also iterated in the whole dying, and resurrected head thing).

666 was a numerical anagram for Nero. The "Beast" was the Roman Emperor (in any given iteration). The "Whore" was Rome. The branding of numbers on the hands or foreheads in order to buy or sell was allusion to the branding of slaves (who were typically branded on those areas), and was a metaphor to Jews/Christians being "enslaved" by having to use the graven image of the Emperor to buy and sell.


It's Revelation, by the way. Singlar, not plural. Don't worry, it's an incredibly common mistake, even by educated and intelligent people such as yourself.
Could it not also be a numerical anagram for Solomon and his 666 talents of gold? His enslavement and conscription of Israelites to Hiram of Tyre? They could not buy or sell without the mark of this man, either Solomon or Hiram? Solomon is also the one responsible for the division of tribes and his son Jeroboam continuing the breach.

Why would this one prophet, John, prophesie against Rome when none of the other prophets had done so and kept their crushing blows to Israel? Israel, the woman, and Jerusalem and Samaria were called the "whore" and "harlot" daughters in OT as the prophets condemned them.
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