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Old 12-29-2008, 09:10 AM   #31
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Graecum est, non legitur. (Middle Ages saying)
Graecus homo ac levis. (Cicero)
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Old 12-29-2008, 09:20 AM   #32
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It's Greek to me
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Old 12-29-2008, 09:22 AM   #33
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I told you to read on.
I have. In fact, I provided you with the full text of what Irenaeus writes about the doctrine of Carpocrates in Against Heresies (book 1) XXV?



I agree. But leaving aside the fact that Irenaeus does not use the Greek term for, or speak of a, "ghost" in Against Heresies (Book 1) 25, let alone in reference to Jesus conception or birth, the question that I've been asking you -- and which you have consistently dodged answering - is whether what you say Irenaus writes here all that he writes concerning Carpocrates doctrine of Jesus?

Does Ireaneus stop, when he is describing Carpocrates view of who Jesus was, with τὸν δὲ Ἰησοῦν ἐξ Ἰωσὴφ γεγενῆσθα?

Yes or no?

To help you answer this question, I reproduce the text of Against Heresies (Book 1) 25 again, with Carpoctates assertion about Jesus and Joseph bolded, so that you may have some visual indication of whether or not Jesus being the son of Joseph was all that Carpocrates said about who and what Jesus was.


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ΚΑΡΠΟΚΡΑΤΗΣ τὸν μὲν κόσμον καὶ τὰ ἐν αὐτῷ ὑπὸ ἀγγέλων πολὺ ὑποβεβηκότων τοῦ ἀγεννήτου Πατρὸς γεγενῆσθαι λέγει· τὸν δὲ Ἰησοῦν ἐξ Ἰωσὴφ γεγενῆσθαι, καὶ ὅμοιον τοῖς ἀνθρώποις γεγονότα, δικαιότερον τῶν λοιπῶν γενέσθαι, τὴν δὲ ψυχὴν αὐτοῦ εὔτονον καὶ καθαρὰν γεγονυῖαν, διαμνημονεῦσαι τὰ ὁρατὰ μὲν [forte l. ὁρώμενα] αὐτῇ ἐν τῇ μετὰ τοῦ ἀγεννήτου Θεοῦ περιφορᾷ, καὶ διὰ τοῦτο ὑπ' ἐκείνου αὐτῷ καταπεμφθῆναι δύναμιν, ὅπως τοὺς κοσμοποιοὺς ἐκφυγεῖν δι' αὐτῆς δυνηθῇ· ἣν καὶ διὰ πάντων χωρήσασαν ἐν πᾶσί τε ἐλευθερωθεῖσαν [ἀν]εληλυθέναι πρὸς αὐτὸν, τὰ ὅμοια αὐτῆς ἀσπαζομένην. Τὴν δὲ τοῦ Ἰησοῦ λέγουσι ψυχὴν ἐννόμως ἠσκημένην ἐν Ἰουδαϊκοῖς ἔθεσι, καταφρονῆσαι αὐτῶν, καὶ διὰ τοῦτο δυνάμεις ἐπιτετελεκέναι, [Int. ἐπιτετυχηκέναι,] δι' ὧν κατήργησε τὰ ἐπὶ κολάσει πάθη προσόντα τοῖς ἀνθρώποις.
If, in the light of the above, you say "yes" to my question of -- i.e. if you say yes it's true that "Jesus was the son of Joseph was indeed all or the only thing that Carpocrates had to say about who he thought Jesus was -- then it is even more obvious than it already is that you do not know what you are talking about when you claim, as you have done, that along with Cerinthus, Carpocrates believed that Jesus was "just a man" and nothing more,

Jeffrey
Why do you always produce passages that are not in English from Against Heresies, and then ask me questions in English?

I have already suggested you post Against Heresies XXV in English.

Are you just copying copies of Against Heresies and posting them. Did you have them proof-read by an independent source to verify that they are free of errors?
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Old 12-29-2008, 09:26 AM   #34
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aa - I gave you a link to Against Heresies in English, and it doesn't say exactly what you claimed.

Do you remember reading "They also hold that Jesus was the son of Joseph, and was just like other men, with the exception that he differed from them in this respect, . . . "

Does the word exception mean anything to you?
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Old 12-29-2008, 10:40 AM   #35
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aa - I gave you a link to Against Heresies in English, and it doesn't say exactly what you claimed.

Do you remember reading "They also hold that Jesus was the son of Joseph, and was just like other men, with the exception that he differed from them in this respect, . . . "

Does the word exception mean anything to you?
But, the passage clearly states that Jesus was the SON of Joseph.

Don't you see the words?

The passage clearly states he was just like other men.

Don't you see the words?

Now where does it say that Carpocrates Jesus was not human?
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Old 12-29-2008, 10:40 AM   #36
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Graecum est, non legitur.
I.E. "it is Greek, [therefore] it cannot be read"

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(Middle Ages saying)
To be more precise, the expression is generally attributed to the Italian jurisconsult François Accurse (Accursio,) 1182- 1260. (on this, see P. Boulhol, La connaissance de la langue grecque dans la Francemédiévale VIe-XVe s, Aix-en-Provence 2008, p. 6 and p. 6 note 4.


An with regard to what I posted, the saying is not apt. Of course it' can be read. The irony is that most of those who post on a forum dedicated to rational biblical criticism -- and especially most of those who claim great insight into what Biblical and Biblically related texts say -- don't have the facility to do so

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Graecus homo ac levis. (Cicero)
The actual saying is:

Quote:
Graecum hominem ac levem
Full text in context is:

Quote:
Deinde Albucius, quod a senatu petebat, ipse sibi in Sardinia ante decreverat; constabat enim Graecum hominem ac levem in ipsa provincia quasi triumphasse, itaque hanc eius temeritatem senatus supplicatione denegata notavit.
What Cicero says in De Provinciis Consularibus Section 15 line 12 may very well be the case (even though there is no evidence to think that this is what Cicero thought about Greek per se -- isn't he here referring to a a particular person's [i.e., Albucius'] Greek?). But it's wholly irrelevant, unless you can show that Greek of the passage I posted is indeed "flighty and inconsistent".

Will you be kind enough to do so?

Jeffrey
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Old 12-29-2008, 05:58 PM   #37
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...

Therefore, I would like to know --- in principal --- why this valid position could not have been shared by Arius and Julian and then covered over (ie: censored) by the orthodox Cyril and his continuators...
It is not impossible, but
Dear Toto,

Thankyou for this small concession - it is appreciated.

Quote:
1) there is no positive evidence that supports it
2) it does not make sense in terms of the intellectual history of the time.

The debates at the time were over theological ideas that are so foreign to us that we have trouble wrapping our brains around them - was the Son pre-existent? Or of a substance the same or similar to a father?

It is only after the Enlightenment that the idea that Jesus was either a human, or possibly did not exist, even made sense to people.
What about the Jesus in the new testament apochrypha? The non canonical jesus appears and reappears as a child, a small boy, in visions, did not leave footprints, appeared insubstantial, was a slave-master, received and signed contracts (bills) of exchange, was a boat captain with a crew - all these things and many more. What was in the mind of the pre-enlightenment author(s) of the non canonical gospels and acts when it came to this Jesus figure?

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Is there anyone who knows anything about Arius who agrees with your interpretation?
I doubt it very much. In order to reach such a position a person would have to be able to take a completely objective stance and say to themselves "I am about to consider the possibility that Jesus did not exist until the fourth century" as a valid hypothesis. The hegemon is with Eusebius' lonely and untrodden road. To discard Eusebius is to literally throw out the baby Jesus with the Eusebian bathwater. Nobody that I can recall is prepared to take this as a working hypothesis.

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Does you interpretation add anything to our understanding of history?
My claim is that it allows us - perhaps for the first time - to investigate a possible alternative history of antiquity in which christianity is an entirely fourth century literary, religious, social and political phenomenom. In gentle and relaxed discussion I will freely admit that my interpretation could be wrong. When I am pressed to defend it, I feel free not to make such admissions/concessions to attack.

The fact is that we have no New Testament archaeology to support the Eusebian framework despite centuries of conjecture and fraud. Hector Avalos stresses this point. (He also addresses the older Hebrew Bible.) My interpretation is put forward as an alternative to be considered in due course as an option to be explored by the enquiring minds of researchers in the field of ancient history. I will accept arguments of authority (in chronology) only by the C14.

Best wishes,


Pete
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Old 12-29-2008, 06:15 PM   #38
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Addressing the OP if I declare a position that -- "I suspect Jesus never existed" is this a valid position? I suspect that it has to be.
On what grounds?
Dear Jeffrey,

On the grounds that I myself declared to hold this position.

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Therefore, I would like to know --- in principal
You mean "in principle"[/quote]

Yes.

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Quote:
--- why this valid position could not have been shared by Arius and Julian

The issue isn't whether this position -- valid or not -- could have been shared by Arius and Julian. It's whether it was shared, let alone ever entertained.
My argument is that it was. Arius and Julian "blew the whistle" on the fabrication of the christians, and the fictitious Jesus who was "made out of nothing existing". That the Arian controversy was a political reaction to the authority of the NT and to the fact it was a plain and simple forgery, a fabrication assembled as a collage of pagan literature with a "christian badge".


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I note that you have not produces a scintilla of evidence to show that it was, your appeals to what you claim Julian's statement about the "fictions of the Galileans"....[...]
Julian's statement was intended to be read in context, and at that time the christians were "officially known" as "Galilaeans". Hence from our perspective in the 21st century, Julian's statement is thus an explicit reference to the fiction of the christians.

Best wishes,


Pete
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Old 12-29-2008, 06:41 PM   #39
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I am not changing the subject. The OP seeks whether anyone suspected Jesus did not exist. The opening paragraph Cyril preserved of Julian discloses the emperor Julian was convinced the fabrication of the christians (ie: the canon) was fiction.
Leaving aside the fact of how your present apodictic statement about what Julian says here (or is showing himself "convinced" of) is in violation of your own claim that we should avoid making pronouncements such as you are making here about what the reported words of Julian meant or what his intentions were, I note two things


1. that you have changed your position on what these words of Julian mean from (a) their being an assertion of the fictitious nature of all NT claims about Jesus being historical and Christianity existing from before Constantine to (b) their being a claim that NT itself (or at least the NT as Eusebius envisaged it) did not exist prior to Constantine and that all the writings within it were forged by Eusebius;
Dear Jeffrey,

My first post to this forum was on the consideration of a Eusebian fiction postulate. This suggests position (b). I have consistently sought evidence to refute this position (b) since that time, and despite Dura-Europa and the Prosenes Inscription in ROME, the hypothesis has not yet met with a silver bullet. I put forward that the NT Canon (and the HJ) was fabricated in the fourth century on the basis that I have no prenice archaeological citation by which we can unambiguously assert the canon of the NT or its followers or its preservers existed prior to the fourth century.

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2. that you have not produced one whit of evidence that the referent of Julian's σκευωρία is the canon, let alone the canon of (i.e., reputedly produced by) the man Euesbius (note the [genitive] plural ἀνθρώπων).
If we have no independent and corroborating evidence from the fields of archaeology that the NT canon (or its preservers and/or followers) existed before Constantine published it, then by implication we may then suspect Eusebius is the inventor of the new testament collage of pagan references and short stories.

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Since you have changed your position and shown yourself wholly uninformed about the meanings and implications of the vocabulary, syntax, and grammar of this text, why should anyone accept your claims?

My position has remained unchanged from day one.


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May be?? The issue is whether they are critical. And critical to what? For establishing Julian's position on the HJ (or is it the existence of the canon before Constantine?)

If the canon was fabricated by Constantine, then HJ was a created creature, a literary fiction, there was a time (and an age) when he was not, and before he was born (Eusebius as midwife) he was not.


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Given your constant appeal to what Julian reputedly says in the opening paragraph of CG as evidence sufficient in itself for knowing what Julian's position regarding the HJ (or is it the canon?) was, your saying that we need to know what else Julian said in order to be know what his beliefs regarding the HJ (or is it the pre-Constantinian existence of the canon?) were is as disingenuous as it is self serving.

Do you think that the opening paragraph of the CG is sufficient to show us "that the emperor Julian was [fully] convinced the fabrication of the christians ... was fiction" or not? [What kind of dodge will this question be met with, I wonder].
YES. The opening lines of Julian's "Against the Christians" must have been well thought out and formed a succinct summary of Julian's intent at that time. It is short and sweet and it would have been known to the public. It is immediately followed by a legal disclaimer. When Cyril refuted Julian Cyril could not find the courage to change it substantially if at all, because he needed to stay "close to the truth" of (what Cyril calls) "Julian's Lies".


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Can you please demonstrate that this is the "orthodox" [:huh:] position (which is also yours, BTW, unless you want to say that the opening paragraph of the CG is not good evidence for knowing what Julian's position was regarding the HJ [or is it the canon?]), let alone that this position has been arrived at by other than honest and unbiased means or an honest and well informed assessment of the evidence?

The orthodox (at that time) for one reason or another believed in the HJ as asserted in the NT canon. They were the authoritarian followers of the new official Roman state monotheistic church, which came into being with the three hundred and eighteen fathers vs. Arius of Alexandria plus 2

Best wishes,


Pete
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Old 12-29-2008, 06:56 PM   #40
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The translator P.R.Coleman-Norton does not appear to agree with you.
On this point, yes. But more notable is the fact that he disagrees with you on the matter of these words signifying a belief on Julian's part that there was no HJ and that Christianity was a Constantinian invention. So what's your point?
Dear Jeffrey,

My point is that we should take the time to investigate and consider the possibility of fourth century origins, since the evidence itself (specifically the C14 citations) allows us to do so.

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But you said that you have never read these histories, let alone the writings of the supporters of Arius or the studies of Arius and of the history of Arianism by modern historians of the Constantinian age and the Arian controversy. So how do you know what this reputed "orthodox dogma" (and there's a question begging expression if there was one) is?
All are variants of an HJ. All assuage the 4th century fabricated and fictitious (literary) Jesus.


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Leaving aside the fact that the Logos/Son that Arius and Arians spoke of is that of Jn 1:1-18, not "the" or any (reputed) "Hellenistic" (i.e.. pagan) one, I wonder if you'd be kind enough to lay out your actual evidence that anyone in Hellenism (or even earlier) who spoke of/wrote about the Logos ever used the designation "son" of this figure/concept or spoke of/wrote about/thought of the Logos in terms of its being a "Son" and/or as having a Father, or ever called the Logos/Son μονογενὴς Θεός or ἰσχυρὸς θεὸς or θεοῦ δύναμις as did Arius and the Arians (on this, see Chapters 1, and 3 -- "The Arian Christ" and "the Obedient Logos" -- in Gregg and Groh's Early Arianism -- A view of Salvation)

Well Jeffrey, how many times do I have to make reference to the citations in the sources for the relationship between the son of Zeus called Apollo, and the son of Apollo called Asclepius? Arius was an ascetic Hellenistic philosopher/priest who IMO was not christian as asserted.

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Really??

Hoo Boy! You weren't kidding when you said you had nor read much, if anything, of the primary evidence from both the opponents of Arius and his supporters!

I wonder if you could have made this claim with a straight face if you had first read the following from Alexander:

or from Athanasius:

or from the Arians themselves:
The Eusebian Ecclesiatical History leads us on a lonely and untrodden path to the council of Nicaea. It prefaces the council of Nicea, where the words of Arius are made counterpoint to the will of Constantine. The Eusebian continuators were in fact in a position to write the history we now read, all these people above. We are presented a one dimensional christian picture, in which the pagans have suddenly vanished from the field to be replaced by multitudes of christian heretics. Arius was certainly a christian heretic with repect to the state monotheistic religion, but this description is christian. My opinion is that Arius is bettwe viewed as a non-christian, in order to be able to narrate the real (non-theological) political history of the fourth century.

Best wishes,



Pete
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