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Old 11-14-2005, 05:22 PM   #21
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Chris Weimer
Gawen - who are you referring to?
Not you, Chris...*grinnin*

I was hoping for a decent general debate...but alas.....well, you know.
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Old 11-14-2005, 09:18 PM   #22
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I too was looking forward to reading this thread. Kinda sad nothing seems to be coming of it. I even half expected that the the following link would show at some point: http://www.arkdiscovery.com/sodom_&_gomorrah.htm Let me just say that I love Ron Wyatt...pure entertainment.
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Old 11-15-2005, 08:04 PM   #23
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what is the etiology and history of the english word "sodomy"?
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Old 11-15-2005, 08:26 PM   #24
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It probably should be pointed out to Mata that regardless of how he interprets the angels in Sodom story, that incident had nothing to do with why Sodom was destroyed. God tells Abraham he's going to smoke Sodom in the chapter BEFORE the angel story (Gen. 18:20-21). Since the decision to destroy Sodom had already been made before the angels ever got there, the incident cannot be said to have been the reason God destroyed the city. There is nothing anywhere in the Bible that says Sodom was destroyed for homosexuality but it DOES say that Sodom was destroyed for lack of hospitality.

I hate to break it to you, Mata, but there really is no clear condemnation of homosexuality anywhere in the Bible. I know you've been taught otherwise, but all of the commonly cited passages are either mistranslations or misinterpretations.
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Old 11-15-2005, 08:34 PM   #25
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diogernes< i hate to break it to you, but you couldnt possibly be more wrorg than you are, the Bible clearly condemns homosexulaity.Book of Jude is a good starting place.
as an aside, listening to the people here., I truly know that we are living in the end days when people are calling evil good and good evil.....and you still didnt answer my question: WHAT IS THE ETIOLOGY OF THE WORD SODOMY?
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Old 11-15-2005, 08:37 PM   #26
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Quote:
Originally Posted by mata leao
what is the etiology and history of the english word "sodomy"?
In the Bible, a Sodomite is just a person from Sodom. Any subsequent derivations of the word "Sodom" are not relevant to what it means in the Bible (and the word "sodomy" isn't in there).
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Old 11-15-2005, 08:50 PM   #27
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Originally Posted by mata leao
diogernes< i hate to break it to you, but you couldnt possibly be more wrorg than you are, the Bible clearly condemns homosexulaity.Book of Jude is a good starting place.
What chapter and verse?
Quote:
as an aside, listening to the people here., I truly know that we are living in the end days when people are calling evil good and good evil.....and you still didnt answer my question: WHAT IS THE ETIOLOGY OF THE WORD SODOMY?
[Sigh]From from Old French sodomie from Latin/Greek sodoma from Hebrew SDM. All completely irrelevant. In the Bible, there is no derivative of the Hebrew place name "Sodom" to indicate any sexual practice.
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Old 11-16-2005, 01:58 AM   #28
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Quote:
Originally Posted by mata leao
and you still didnt answer my question: WHAT IS THE ETIOLOGY OF THE WORD SODOMY?
Possibly because the question is nonsensical: etiology is the study of causation. I think you may be looking for the word etymology. See http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Etiology.
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Old 11-16-2005, 03:27 AM   #29
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Actually, it's "The Letter From Jude", not the "book" thereof.

It mentions the cities of Sodom and Gomorrah in relation to their alleged destruction due to "sexual immorality" and "perversion". <Jude 1:7>

This is the only mention of Sodom and Gomorrah in the letter. Homosexuality and the two cities are not mentioned anywhere else.

"Sexual immorality" or "perversion" == homosexuality is a dangerous and erroneous assumption to make.

I'm using a "Good News" Bible. Other version may be different. If they are, it becomes a case of "My Bible is holier than yours!"
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Old 11-16-2005, 08:45 AM   #30
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Quote:
Originally Posted by general_koffi
Actually, it's "The Letter From Jude", not the "book" thereof.

It mentions the cities of Sodom and Gomorrah in relation to their alleged destruction due to "sexual immorality" and "perversion". <Jude 1:7>

This is the only mention of Sodom and Gomorrah in the letter. Homosexuality and the two cities are not mentioned anywhere else.

"Sexual immorality" or "perversion" == homosexuality is a dangerous and erroneous assumption to make.

I'm using a "Good News" Bible. Other version may be different. If they are, it becomes a case of "My Bible is holier than yours!"
From Young's Literal Translation:

"as Sodom and Gomorrah, and the cities around them, in like manner to these, having given themselves to whoredom, and gone after other flesh, have been set before -- an example, of fire age-during, justice suffering."
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