Acetylhexene

Simple question, I'd have thought.

Did God rape Mary?

If your answer is in the negative, please provide an explanation for your reasoning.

EssEff

The word that was mistranslated as "virgin" actually means "young girl," so it seems it was statutory rape at the very least.

John Kesler

Isaiah 7:14, quoted in Matthew's birth narrative, is probably what you are thinking of. Luke's account, however (see Luke 1:34), makes explicit the fact that Mary had not had sexual relations.

Chili

No, because Mary's being proclaimed the greatness of the Lord and thus not God. See the difference? Hint, God and Lord God are not the same, and once you figure out the difference between these two you may come back and explain the word rape in this context.

Amaleq13

She never gives her consent but never actually protests, either. She just asks how it could be possible.

I think, from the available evidence, one could offer a good argument of implied consent but the available evidence is hardly unbiased.

C_Mucius_Scaevola

Did Frodo destroy the One Ring?
Did the Artful Dodger pick pockets?
Did Yossarian sit naked in a tree to watch a funeral?

The answer to your question, like the answers to the questions above is "no" because, like the people in the questions above, both God and Mary are fictional characters.

C_M_S

Betenoire

So a class D felony instead of class B?
Would it classify as an abuse of power on God's part?

yalla

Encarta dictionary: "forcing of somebody into sex:"

Concise Macquarie dictionary : "the act of having sexual intercourse with any other person against his or her will"

Was force applied?
No.
Therefore by this definition ....not rape..
Was Mary willing?
No mention of that as an issue in "Matthew". She simply finds herself with child.
But....
In "Luke" her willingness or otherwise is not, initially, an issue. The angel tells her she will conceive. Consent, at this stage, is not given. The angel goes on to tell her, after she wonders how she can conceive 'when she has no husband' that 'youshall conceive" [note that this is not a request for permission but stated as an impending fact, Mary's consent or otherwise is irrelevant, at this point], that "the Holy Spirit will come upon you, and the power of the Most High [presumably god] will overshadow you
Note: the person [?] responsible for the pregnancy will be god and the bolded bit [will overshadow you] is an euphemism for sexual intercourse so I have read.

So we have god who will have sex with Mary where consent has not been raised.
That's pretty close to rape, non consensual sex, because the issue of consent has not been raised, but the impregnation will occur. The language says it will occur, fait accompli.
Furthermore note the imbalance of power here in the relationships,
Mary is a young female in a time and place when the personal and social power of women was less than men. Although not, I presume, by the standards of the time, a 'minor', there is a definite inequality in the power relationship. God is after all regarded as petty powerful.
But then the issue of consent is raised...sort of.
Mary says "Here am I, I am the Lord's servant [again the power imbalance] as you have spoken so be it"
Consent given before the act.
Therefore not rape.

So no it's not rape according to "Luke" but it is pretty unsavoury considering two factors, the imbalance of power and the presumption that the act will occur when the issue of consent had not been raised.

schilling.klaus

Mary is a goddess, like Isisi or Ashtarte, thus metaphysical reality,
not a lowlife form.

The gospel story concerning Mary is thus to be understood metaphysically,
not biologically as academic hucksters do.

Klaus Schilling

~M~

what's all this talk about consent and rape? as far as i am aware, there was no sexual encounter or intercourse of any kind.