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02-09-2013, 02:33 PM | #321 | |
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02-09-2013, 03:07 PM | #322 | ||
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1. Clement of Alexandria made references to the Epistle Hebrews and also argued that Jesus was baptized by John and was crucified at the age of 30 years under Pilate. See Clement's Stromata. 2. Origen made references to the Epistle Hebrews and also argued that Jesus was born in a cave in Bethlehem, was baptized by John and was crucified under Pilate. See Origen's De Principiis, and "Against Celsus". 3. Eusebius' "Church History" made references to Epistle Hebrew and it is claimed Jesus born of a Virgin, baptised by John, was crucified under Pilate when Caiaphas was High Priest 4. Chrysostom wrote Homilies on Hebrews and argued that Jesus was born in Bethlehem, baptized by John and was crucified under Pilate. It is you who have used an admitted grammatically ambiguous verse in Hebrews without a shred of supporting evidence from antiquity and SUPPOSED it referred to an heavenly Jesus and crucified in the sub-lunar. Not a single writer of antiquity, heretic or not, support your never on earth Jesus crucified in the sub-lunar. You have nothing from antiquity but your wild imagination to support you. Effectively, your Hebrews 8.4 challenge is really worthless--just a grammatically ambiguous passage--just smoke. |
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02-09-2013, 03:35 PM | #323 | |
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Where did you read from the Greek "evident from scripture"? For 2:14-17, you took "spiritual blood" from a wrong NEB translation. And where did you read spiritual blood and spiritual flesh in: 2:14 Since therefore the children share in flesh and blood, he himself likewise partook of the same nature, that through death he might destroy him who has the power of death, that is, the devil, 2:15 and deliver all those who through fear of death were subject to lifelong bondage. 2:16 For surely it is not with angels that he is concerned but with the descendants of Abraham. 2:17 Therefore he had to be made like his brethren in every respect, so that he might become a merciful and faithful high priest in the service of God, to make expiation for the sins of the people. (RSV) For 5:7, how do you know that "in the days of his flesh" is taken from scriptures? the author did not say that. Why "flesh", in that context, would have a different of meaning than in: Ro 6:19 Darby "I speak humanly on account of the weakness of your flesh." 2 Cor 7:5 Darby "For indeed, when we came into Macedonia, our flesh had no rest ..." Gal 4:14 Darby "and my temptation, which [was] in my flesh, you did not slight nor reject with contempt; ..." Gal 6:8 Darby "For he that sows to his own flesh, shall reap corruption from the flesh ..." Gal 6:13 Darby "... but they wish you to be circumcised, that they may boast in your flesh ..." Heb 12:9 Darby "Moreover we have had the [real!] fathers of our flesh as chasteners, and we reverenced [them] ..." Cordially, Bernard |
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02-09-2013, 04:48 PM | #324 | |
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And "brother" (member of a sect) is not the same as "brother of the Lord". Furthermore, Paul had to identify that "James", because, at the time, there was another prominent "James" among the Church of Jerusalem, the brother of John the fisherman (according to 'Acts'). BTW, Paul never called the members of the church of Jerusalem plain "brother(s)". And Paul knew that "brothers" (members of the Christian sect => Christians) has not the same meaning than "brothers of the Lord" as I demonstrated for 1 Corinthians 9:5 Here. Cordially, Bernard |
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02-10-2013, 07:31 AM | #325 | |
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02-10-2013, 08:36 AM | #326 | |
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I could not check for 2:3 and 2:14-17 because these pages are not shown on the preview. Cordially, Bernard |
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02-10-2013, 10:47 AM | #327 | ||
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The NT Canon is about GOD INCARNATE--A Myth character. The Teachings of the Church is that Jesus is GOD INCARNATE--a Myth character. Please, we have Hundreds of Apologetic writings and we know EXACTLY that the Christian Jesus of the Canon was GOD INCARNATE--not just a human being. See the Nicene Creed. Origen argued Against Celsus when he claimed Jesus was a man whose father was Panthera. Origen argued that Jesus was born of a Ghost and a Virgin. It is time this absurd Hebrews 8.4 challenge come to an end because there is NO way that Doherty can establish that an admitted grammatically ambiguous passage of an unprovenanced, anonymous and undated Epistle promoted that Jesus was never on earth since before the Jewish War. We know Nothing of Epistle Hebrews until AFTER Marcion or after 150 CE. |
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02-11-2013, 09:32 AM | #328 |
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You know the "Jesus Puzzle" book well, since you've published a thorough Critique of it in your site. You also know very well Richard Carrier's review of the "Jesus Puzzle", online at http://www.infidels.org/library/modern/richard_carrier/jesuspuzzle.html (2002). Carrier has a Ph.D. in ancient history, Columbia Un. He has a young, incisive, mathematically-inclined brain. Now, in Appendix 1, Carrier lists all the "problems" he's spotted in Doherty's book, numbered 1 to 12. In Problem #10, he lists many instances where Doherty's Greek is shaky, spotty or plain wrong. The instance (x) refers to another instance of misinterpretation of the original Greek. And it is astonishing that you don't seem to have ever mentioned it here (to my recollection, correct me if I'm wrong), as it concerns the very meat of this Challenge, the translation of Hebrews 8:4. Carrier says: "(x) Appendix 5 (p. 310): Doherty intuitively mentions the correct reading, but is evidently unaware of the more esoteric details of Greek grammar that confirm this intuition: an ei...an phrase using the imperfect tense is always a present contrafactual (a past contrafactual would call for the aorist). In other words: "So, then, if he were on earth, he would not be a priest..." is the only correct translation. This is not an obscure point in Greek grammar. It is so fundamental to habits of oral discourse that this is simply the only way to read this passage. This takes away some of the force of his interpretation, but does not contradict it. |
02-11-2013, 10:05 AM | #329 | |
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02-11-2013, 10:49 AM | #330 | ||
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So what is it, Roo? Either you have entirely forgotten the basic arguments surrounding this point and the scholarship and grammatical experts I have appealed to (I guess your deficient attention span for my writing style extends to your length of short term memory), or else you haven't and you are trying to deliberately mislead the readers, thus demonstrating that you are dishonorably engaged in a personal vendetta. Which one would you like to cop to? Neither one covers you in glory. Nor have your antics on Amazon. You and the other two in your terrible trio, GDon and Bernard Muller (and I'll shortly have something to say about his recent postings), are all equally guilty of the same tactics, kept up with stubborn repetition over the years. Keep flogging a dead horse, ignore dissenting scholarship, counter-argument and later statements and clarifications by myself. Spin's opinion notwithstanding, I urge you to keep posting. All you do is continue to illustrate your own lack of honesty and integrity. I am sure there is not a person left on this planet (other than your co-conspirators) who thinks that anything you say has any legitimacy. Earl Doherty |
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