judge

It seems pretty obvious that the David and Goliath sory in modern bibles and hence the massoretic hebrew text is a pastiche of two original stories (sorry bout the pop ups but the story explain it well.)

Now one of the original stories is in the LXX which is said to have been translated in the 3rd century B.C., and if not later than this.
If this is the case then when were the two stories mixed together?

If the greek translation (the LXX) was translated from Hebrew in the 3rd cent B.C. or later then doesn't this suggest the redaction was done after this?

Or is it just an indication there nwere many versions of the Hebrew bible right up un til the council of jamina?

Chris Weimer

I'd go for the latter. For we still have different versions of the Bible, and we have found different versions of the Bible among different peoples of antiquity. DSS.

spin

It wasn't done in the third century. The writer didn't know that Demetrius of Phalernum had been banned from court at the beginning of the reign of Ptolemy Philadelphus. Scholars usually assume it is a later pseudepigraphic work.

Masada shows itself to be monotradition, all MT-type.


spin

Chris Weimer

eh? Care to go in that a little more spin?

Jorgen

While the LXX was copied from a Hebrew version of Samuel without the additional redaction, this does not mean that the redacted version was earlier. There were variant copies of Samuel in existence until quite late, as the DSS show.

Jorgen

judge

Thanks Jorgen, do you know when samuel is thought ot have been redcated?
Is there any reason this was not done in the first century for example?