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12-19-2005, 10:14 AM | #1 |
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Is there any sign of Jerusalem's fall in GJohn?
I don't recall seeing any prophecies of the temple destruction/Roman invasion, etc. in GJohn. Nor any allusions to it by the author(s). Note too 5:2: " 2and there is in Jerusalem by the sheep-[gate] a pool that is called in Hebrew Bethesda, having five porches." That place is known to have existed and to have been destroyed in 70AD, but the reference seems to have no knowledge of such destruction. Might all these suggest that GJohn, or portions of it, were written prior to 70AD?
My understanding is that the current thinking is that GJohn was aware of GMark's material. Does this not suggest that GMark was also written before 70AD? What are the implications of each of these? Do they impact the probability that the gospels are stories made up long after the alleged time of Jesus' life about a man who never really lived? ted |
12-19-2005, 10:35 AM | #2 |
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I suspect that the destruction of Jerusalem would have been fairly uninteresting to the author of John. GJohn is not a particularly apocalyptic writing, as far as I understand, it mostly argues for the fact that the church and the paraclete are the legacy of Jesus and, as such, are already present.
GJohn seems to have been reliant on the signs source, which is probably a very early, but hypothetical, document, if memory serves. The argument from silence is always a dangerous one, but occasionally insightful. Also, bear in mind that GJohn is outside the synoptic tradition. Although, to what extent I could not say, GJohn is not my best area. Julian |
12-19-2005, 10:47 AM | #3 | ||
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12-19-2005, 11:43 AM | #4 |
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GJohn knows about the expulsion of Christians from the synagogues, hence it had to have been written after the destruction of the Temple.
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12-19-2005, 11:53 AM | #5 | |
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Edit: I see it now in 16:2. However, earlier references (9:22, 12:42) are to people who were confessing him to be the Christ during his ministry, so I don't see why one need see 16:2 as having been written after 70AD, if persecution was occurring early on, as common sense and Paul's writings indicate, which would include prohibiting people from proclaiming Jesus as the Messiah in the synagogues. Also, what do you make of 5:2? ted |
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12-19-2005, 12:20 PM | #6 | ||
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12:42 "Nevertheless among the chief rulers also many believed on him; but because of the Pharisees they did not confess [him], lest they should be put out of the synagogue" 16:2 "They shall put you out of the synagogues: yea, the time cometh, that whosoever killeth you will think that he doeth God service." Quote:
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12-19-2005, 12:26 PM | #7 | |
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12-19-2005, 12:43 PM | #8 |
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Ted, if you are interested in a conservative (some might say hyperconservative) date for the gospel of John, I recommend J. A. T. Robinson, Redating the New Testament and The Priority of John. Robinson in fact dates every New Testament book to before 70; he is of course not widely followed in that.
As for the implications of dating John to before 70, they would be dramatic. After reading Bauckham, The Gospels for All Christians, I think Mark would have to be pushed back a ways, since John presumes Mark, and along with Streeter I would think that Luke would have to be pushed back, too, since John appears to presume Luke. The direct effect on Matthew would be less certain, but if Luke knew Matthew (as per Farrer or the three-source theory) then it, too, would have to be redated. Ben. |
12-19-2005, 03:29 PM | #9 | |
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12-19-2005, 04:09 PM | #10 | |
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What about John 4:21 Jesus said to her, "Woman, believe Me, an hour is coming when neither in this mountain nor in Jerusalem will you worship the Father. It shows knowledge of the destruction of Jerusalem, and also Vespasians attack on Mount Gerizim. |
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