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Old 04-11-2008, 12:06 AM   #1
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Exclamation Bible questions

I am unsure of the complete history of the Bible but what I can glean so far is that the origional is in a language that time forgot then the Greek language was used ;then in about 387Ad the Popes and his fellow cardinals did a bit of a rearrange job . Back in the 50s and early 60s the Roman Catholics here used a Latin Bible and the Protestants used a King James Version in English. Now there are plethora of up to date versions each one better than the rest with the real translations revealed threin. My questions today are Q#1which version is the correct word of God and that would mean the other versions are the word of MAN and Q #2 did or has the Islamic KORAN only one version or is there more than one interpretation around in a similar way to the Christian Holy Bible
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Old 04-11-2008, 02:12 AM   #2
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http://www.fstdt.com/fundies/comments.aspx?q=13173
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If your original Hebrew disagrees with my original King James --- your original Hebrew is wrong. If your original Hebrew agrees with my original King James, your original Hebrew is right.
http://www.fstdt.com/fundies/comments.aspx?q=19917
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The word of God has been in heaven forever. The KJV has always been there. The so called Hebrew words like Alleluia are English words. The English did not borrow them from the Hebrew but rather the Hebrew borrowed them from the English. If the KJV has always been there and is the original word of God then there is no other conclusion. The same can be said for any so called Greek words that were borrowed from the Greek or transliterated. It is a matter of what bias you approach this particular subject.
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Old 04-11-2008, 02:25 AM   #3
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Originally Posted by simongc View Post
...Q#1which version is the correct word of God and that would mean the other versions are the word of MAN
They are all the words of men.
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Q #2 did or has the Islamic KORAN only one version or is there more than one interpretation around in a similar way to the Christian Holy Bible
The Qur'an was written in Arabic and for religious purposes is only read or recited in Arabic, so there is no similar confusion of versions.

For some quick background on the Christian Bible, I recommend The Formation of the New Testament Canon
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Old 04-11-2008, 04:47 AM   #4
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Originally Posted by simongc View Post
I am unsure of the complete history of the Bible but what I can glean so far is that the origional is in a language that time forgot then the Greek language was used ;then in about 387Ad the Popes and his fellow cardinals did a bit of a rearrange job . Back in the 50s and early 60s the Roman Catholics here used a Latin Bible and the Protestants used a King James Version in English. Now there are plethora of up to date versions each one better than the rest with the real translations revealed threin. My questions today are Q#1which version is the correct word of God and that would mean the other versions are the word of MAN and Q #2 did or has the Islamic KORAN only one version or is there more than one interpretation around in a similar way to the Christian Holy Bible
The Old-Hebrew language started as a 1:1 copy of Phoenician language in about 950 BCE, the earliest finding ever is the GEZER calender from 925 BCE. Over and above, the designer God El (Genesis 2) and the Goddess Ashera are copied from Ugarit together with many other details, a tribe living north of Phoenicia (Libanon) from 1800 BCE to about 1000 BCE. After the destruction of the Jerusalem temple around 587 BCE the town was in ruins for about 180 years as reported by the Elephantine letter fom 408 BCE.

The Middle-Hebrew language started with a copy of the Aramaic alphabet in about 250 BCE. Hebrew never developped its own alphabet, it copied nearly everything. At that time, the public language in Palestina was Aramaic, Hebrew was only used by priests in temple service

At about 1300 BCE down to 1000 BCE the historical Ur-u-salem (Jerusalem) was a minor village with a vassal king f.e. Abdi Heba under Egypt pharaoh power, the language in use was Acadian and some letters could be read today in the Echnaton library. The biblical Jebusite kindom of Adoni Zadek in Jerusalem is bullshit just like Moses passing the country of Edom, which existed only about 500 years later.

All Hebrew text papyrus with religious content are written with the Aramaic alphabet and therefore not older than 250 BCE. Moses could never write his books in Hebrew language, it simply did not exist. Neither God nor Moses ever dictated or wrote a single word. It would give no sense to run away from Egypt to get into Jerusalem under Pharaoh power. The pharao loosing his life in the Red Sea during the Moses pursuit and disappeared for ever in the water is now a nice looking mummy in the museum in Cairo. Since the word of God is eternal true, all the history must be false

By the way, the creationist detest the King James Bible, becaue that King James was gay
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