D.H. Cross

Is it anywhere disputed that the promises in the bible (James 5:14-15, Mark 16:18, John 15:7) pertained only to the disciples at and after Pentacost?

I don't believe in Faith Healing, or miracles for that matter, but I did think that the crazies who did had at least a reason based in the bible to attempt these feats (or fake them). I've been told, however, that the Bible makes it clear these magical powers were granted only to the original disciples.

Thoughts?

John Kesler

The usual passage cited to prove that "magical powers" were only for the "Apostolic Age" is 1 Corinthians 13:

The dispute about whether such "magical powers" have ended centers on the meaning of "the complete" (KJV says "that which is perfect") of verse 10. Those who argue that these "spiritual gifts" have ended usually interpret "the complete" to mean either the canonized Bible or perfect love.

Aspirin99

If you are a Gnostic, you have some magic in the 2nd century Gnostic christian writings, but I don't recall much in Ante-Nicene writings.

D.H. Cross

Is this debated by scholars? Where can I find information on this? I'm sure it would be a big surprise to the pentacostals.

John Kesler

The meaning of the "perfect" is debated, and you can find information supporting differing viewpoints both on the Internet and in Bible commentaries. Here is a Web site advocating the "perfect love" explanation. John MacArthur gives a nice overview of various viewpoints here.

My opinion? I think that 1 Corinthian 13:10 is best understood in the light of 1 Corinthians 1:7-8:

The "perfect" is, I believe, the coming age after the Parousia of Jesus. Love, unlike the "spiritual gifts," will have continuing relevance even after God's perfected kingdom is in effect.

Chili

They are not crazy but they are touched by the angel of light who empowers them to do the things they do. They are the second beast of Rev.13 now trying to change the world around them instead of the world that exist in their own mind.