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09-26-2001, 07:57 AM | #1 |
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For Nomad: Please explain 'Satan' in Job
Nomad, I haven't seen you responding to my post in this thread, asking about Satan in the book of Job.
Job 1:6-7: "Now there was a day when the sons of God came to present themselves before the LORD, and Satan also came among them. The LORD said to Satan, "From where do you come?" Then Satan answered the LORD and said, "From roaming about on the earth and walking around on it." OK, there's Satan right there 'before the Lord', talking to him. How does this jive with the Christian doctrine that runs something like "God cannot tolerate sin in his presence"? For example, This page about Presbyterian doctrine has a section on the atonement of Christ, that has that very phrase, "God cannot tolerate sin in his presence" with a bunch of bible verses as supporting reference (Hab. 1:13, Ex 20:5, 23:7, Ps 5:5,6, Nahum 1:2, and Rom. 1:18,32). Care to reconcile these two items? Thanks. -Kelly |
09-26-2001, 03:50 PM | #2 | |
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And when you answer that, explain why god can tolerate himself being in his presence. I mean, besides destroying Job and his livehood, he destroyed a perfect man's wife, servants, 10 kids, and cattle (income). Following that, he struck him with some really bad diseases. And all this "without cause":
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09-26-2001, 08:47 PM | #3 | |
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I am unsure what your question here happens to be. God can, and does talk with sinful people (meaning everyone), and with Satan as well. This doesn't mean that they are with him in Heaven, it only means that they are talking with Him. God will not cut off Satan, nor anyone else until after the final judgement. So what is the problem exactly? Nomad |
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09-27-2001, 08:31 AM | #4 | |
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Or do you not think that the latter doctrine is true? Do you think that God CAN tolerate sin in his presence? I'm sure you can see where I'm going with this. I've heard for years, and read the same thing, that the atonement of Jesus is necessary because God cannot tolerate sinners in his presence. Do you agree with that bit of Christian doctrine or not? And if you DO agree with it, then why is Satan allowed 'before the Lord', as described in Job? -Kelly |
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09-27-2001, 09:52 AM | #5 | |||||||
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God talks with people throughout the Bible, and in all kinds of places. So why not talk with Satan? Quote:
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09-27-2001, 10:37 PM | #6 | ||
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Nomad:
Here is the entire passage, with interesting parts emphasized. Job 1-2, NIV translation, plus notes: Quote:
And it says the angels and Satan came into God's presence and later Satan left. If God is omnipresent then "in his presence" means that he is more present. i.e. it is a holy place. So there was a holy place where God was present more than usual and the angels came there, then so did Satan, then he left the holy place. There doesn't seem to be anything in Job which says that Satan is evil. He is making Job suffer but Satan isn't judged as a bad person by God. And God explicitly gave approval for Satan's plans. Also, could you explain why God causes demon possessions in these passages, while in the New Testament demon possession is blamed on Satan and Jesus exorcises the demons? What the Bible says about demons Quote:
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09-28-2001, 12:47 AM | #7 |
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Somebody ignored my post, I wonder who it was...
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09-28-2001, 08:16 PM | #8 | ||||
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If you will stop trying to read into the passages I think you will have an easier time understanding what they say John. At that point, if you have further questions, I will be happy to try my best in answering them. Nomad |
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09-29-2001, 12:28 AM | #9 | |||||||||
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Note Some Biblical passages associated with Satan: Quote:
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09-29-2001, 07:23 AM | #10 | ||||
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Job 1:6 Now there was a day when the sons of God came to present themselves before the LORD, and Satan also came among them. I can say: "My sons came to see me, and their friend was also with them." In no way would we construe from this sentence that my sons' friend was also my son. The same is true with Satan and the "sons of God". BTW, you could translate the "sons of God" as "angels". The NIV does that. Quote:
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The examples of God's appearance to Moses in Exodus 3 and 34, and of Elijah in 1 Kings 19 show that God has appeared to men, and done so here on earth. Once again we can see that God need not be in heaven to speak with His creatures, and when He does so, it is entirely at His initiative. Personally, I find it interesting to contrast the humility and fear of the men in these passages with how Satan responds in the presense of God. Satan certainly appears to be far less humble, and not at all afraid of God. There are other examples of God appearing to a man or men (see Abram in Genesis 17). As a rule these appearances never take place in Heaven, but here on earth. Quote:
As a final point, I do not see actual demon possession taking place in the passages you have sited. This is why I cautioned you about reading too much into the passages. I also did not know you were asking a more general question, and no longer confining yourself to questions about the book of Job. Nomad |
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