Acts 4:12 says, speaking of Jesus, "Salvation is found in no one else, for there is no other name under heaven given to men by which we must be saved." (NIV)

There is no other NAME? What exactly does that mean? Obviously that name is not said the same way in all languages. In English it's Jesus, in Spanish it's pronounced "hay-zoos" and in Greek it was pronounced "ee-ay-sooce". Did Peter mean that we actually have to call Jesus by his original Greek (or maybe Aramaic?) name for salvation? If not, what does this mean? Even if you don't believe that Peter was speaking by the inspiration of God, and thus he probably didn't have enough foresight to think about Chrisianity expanding to outside of the hellenistic word, think about it and post some alternative understandings of this strange statement. Thanks.

Matt

I'm an atheist and I don't believe any of it, but I'll answer your question.

Looking at the quote in the context of the rest of the chapter, we find that Peter and John had been captured by the Sad'ducees because they had healed a lame man (Acts 3) The High Priest asked them by what power or name they did this by, and Peter then tells them that it was done in the name of Jesus Christ of Nazareth and he says some other stuff before he ends with your quote.

The point being that according to Peter, the only way to salvation is through Jesus, not literally through his name, but through his power.

Why are you asking for Biblical interpretaions on an Atheist message board anyway? Don't you know we'll send you down the garden path?

James Still

Just to add to what Pitshade said the ancients believed that magic could be worked with the power of a name. If you knew a demon's name, you could control him and make him do a task for you. In the Gospel of Mark (Chap 5) you have this great exchange between the demoniac and Jesus where the demoniac says, "What have you to do with me, Jesus, Son of the Most High God?" Here the demon inside of the man is saying "aha! I know your name!" but that the same time Mark wants us to realize that the demon's magic is not as powerful as Jesus' magic. We see this when Jesus asks the demon's name and he is forced to tell him that his name is "Legion." Now that Jesus knows the demons' name he can control them and proceeds to send them all into a herd of swine (a great pun against Gentiles by the way). So when the disciples cast demons out "in Jesus' name" it means that their mojo is top-notch because Jesus' magic is more powerful than demon magic.

I absolutely agree here. Frederick Cornwallis Conybeare devotes a complete chapter to this very subject in his The Origins of Christianity. Others who have discussed this subject, some at length, are John M. Hull (Hellenistic Magic and the Synoptic Tradition), Morton Smith (Jesus the Magician), Charles Guignebert (Jesus), Adolf Deissmann (Light from the Ancient East), and Susan R. Garrett (The Demise of the Devil: Magic and the Demonic in Luke's Writings).

rodahi



[This message has been edited by rodahi (edited June 14, 2001).]

Matt,

You are absolutely right! All Christians who refer to him as Jesus will go to hell for not following the exact words of Peter. Henceforth we expect at least you to refer to him as ee-ay-sooce.

Matt - some reading for you:

http://www.infidels.org/library/mode...rophecies.html