stephan huller

http://watchmenservices.info/Books%2...s%20(2008).pdf

Available now to read on line. Perhaps one of the most intriguing questions in the Bible. Why did God sanction the plundering of silver and gold from Egypt? Moreover it specifically says that he would delude the Egyptians to hand over their gold against their better judgment.

The specific passages in Exodus that are relevant here are God statement long before the Exodus “And I will give this people such favor in the sight of the Egyptians that when you go, you will not go empty-handed. Each woman will ask her neighbor and any woman staying in her house for silver and gold jewelry, and clothing, and you will put them on your sons and daughters. So you will plunder the Egyptians,” [Exodus 3:21-22]

God’s statement during the Exodus “Now announce to the people that both men and women should ask their neighbors for gold and silver jewelry.” The LORD gave the people favor in the sight of the Egyptians. And the man Moses was feared in the land of Egypt, by Pharaoh’s officials and the people. [Exodus 11:2-3]

and finally “The Israelites acted on Moses’ word and asked the Egyptians for silver and gold jewelry and for clothing. And the LORD gave the people such favor in the Egyptians’ sight that they gave them what they requested. In this way they plundered the Egyptians.” [Exodus 12:35]

Cheerful Charlie

Its simple. None of this happened. The story teller who made up this tale, needed a source of materials to create the tabernacle and priestly clothing and accouterments.
So he wrote this into his exodus tale to give a source of gold, silver, costly gemstones et al for all of this creation of a rich cult priesthood and tabernacle, later the temple. Having a large and rich and impressive temple was important to show that God favored those with grand temples.

Same reason thge great Gothic cathedrals were built.

Cheerful Charlie

stephan huller

Sorry I don't buy it. There is a consistent echo in the commentary that the pagans thought it happened. It may not have happened as the Bible says it did but there must have been a plunder of the Egyptians by someone whom pagans took to be the Israelites. Even the Biblical account puts God and the Israelites in a strange morally ambiguous position. Why have the Israelites steal from the Egyptians if it wasn't true or at least generally assumed to be true?