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Old 08-05-2002, 10:46 PM   #1
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Once more, regarding a National Church. Two versions of the First Amendment were rejected initially. One would have only barred a National Church, and the other would have explicitly allowed the multiple establishments view we tend to use now.

If the First Amendment was only to bar a National Church, why did they reject a version with that specific wording? Did the Founding Fathers want a simple concept to be a point of 200 years of contention?
Morat originally posted that on BB. Anyone know of a source to back this up? This would be EXTREMELY interesting, considering it kicks the crap out of all that "first amendment only means no national church" argument.
 
Old 08-06-2002, 12:37 AM   #2
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You might wish to begin your research here:

<a href="http://members.tripod.com/~candst/1stdebat.htm" target="_blank">http://members.tripod.com/~candst/1stdebat.htm</a>
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