Freethought & Rationalism Archive

TedM · 08-25-2005, 08:43 AM

Assuming Q exists, I find it curious that it contains a number of teachings also found in James, yet the author of James doesn't attributed any of his sayings to Jesus. What implications do you see here, if any with regard to when James was written. Comments anyone?

ted

Julian · 08-25-2005, 09:32 AM

Since part of James is a rebuttal to Paul then that would put Paul before Q, as well. Just an observation.

Julian

TedM · 08-25-2005, 02:43 PM

Quote:

Originally Posted by Julian

Since part of James is a rebuttal to Paul then that would put Paul before Q, as well. Just an observation.

Julian

Can we say for sure that part of James is a rebuttal to Paul? Some have pointed out that if he knew Paul's letters he didn't understand them well. Could it be that he is talking about a different issue? He doesn't mention circumcision, says almost nothing about Jesus, and I dont' recall a mention of the Gentiles either.

ted

Julian · 08-26-2005, 11:27 AM

Quote:

Originally Posted by TedM

Can we say for sure that part of James is a rebuttal to Paul? Some have pointed out that if he knew Paul's letters he didn't understand them well. Could it be that he is talking about a different issue? He doesn't mention circumcision, says almost nothing about Jesus, and I dont' recall a mention of the Gentiles either.

ted

I am relying on Ehrman for this observation. I will see if I can find the relevant passages in Orthodox Corruption of Scripture which is where I saw it, I think.

Julian

Zeichman · 08-26-2005, 05:03 PM

Quote:

Originally Posted by Julian

Since part of James is a rebuttal to Paul then that would put Paul before Q, as well. Just an observation.

Julian

James was written well after Paul. If the author knew Paul, we could probably assume that he would be attacking Paul's views and not gross misunderstandings thereof.

08-25-2005, 08:43 AM	#1
TedM Veteran Member Join Date: Apr 2005 Location: USA, Missouri Posts: 3,070	Does the letter of James precede Q? Assuming Q exists, I find it curious that it contains a number of teachings also found in James, yet the author of James doesn't attributed any of his sayings to Jesus. What implications do you see here, if any with regard to when James was written. Comments anyone? ted

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08-25-2005, 09:32 AM	#2
Julian Veteran Member Join Date: Feb 2004 Location: Washington, DC (formerly Denmark) Posts: 3,789	Since part of James is a rebuttal to Paul then that would put Paul before Q, as well. Just an observation. Julian

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