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Old 11-26-2008, 12:11 PM   #1
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Default A good argument for Jesus' existence?

Okay I'll start of by saying I'm not arguing for his existence. I'm an atheist, I think the lack of evidence/the argument from silence sufficiently dispels the claim of Jesus the supernatural god-man, and the events outlined in the gospels (e.g. dead saints, crowds of thousands, etc), however the question of a purely human Jesus remains. I'm certainly skeptical; I think Richard Carrier and others certainly have a plausible hypothesis that should be taken more seriously by the mainstream. In any case I think if we're honest with ourselves then, as argued by as Robert Price, we really just don't know and can only truly arrive at 'agnosticism' on his existence. Anyway, I'm certainly open to a purely human Jesus who later became embellished in to the myth we have today.

Here's the argument I read for why Jesus must have existed:

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Thirdly, [ahistoricity] needs to account for elements in the stories which, because they were clearly awkward for the gospel writers, seem to have been left in the story because of their historicity - eg the fact Jesus was rather inconveniently from Nazareth rather than Bethlehem.
But Jesus was born in Bethlehem, right? He just grew up in Nazareth (untill he left altogether).
Well, that's what the gospels try to tell us to get their Messiah off the hook. Except they manage to trip each other up by telling two totally contradictory stories about how this Galilean was actually a Judean by birth. Matthew says his parents lived in Bethlehem originally, but only fled (first to Egypt, then to Nazareth) to escape Herod. Luke sets his story ten years later, doesn't mention Herod (who'd been dead for a decade anyway) and has Jesus' parents going to Bethlehem for the census of Publius Sulpicius Quirinius; just long enough for Jesus to be conveniently born there.

Both stories are riddled with historical problems (another of Herod's sons ruled Galilee, so why would settling in Nazareth get away from Herod's family? Why would Quirinius' census require Joseph to go to Bethlehem?) But the problem is that if Matthew's is true then Luke's has to be false and vice versa.

It's pretty clear that both are false and are separate (contradictory) attempts at solving the same problem - how to give Jesus, the Galilean from Nazareth, the Bethlehem birth he never had so he fulfills this key requirement for Messiah status.

So, if Jesus was a figment of fiction, why create this problem by having him come from Nazareth in the first place? Nazareth had zero significance of any kind, so why the hell is it in the story; especially considering it caused such a problem? Why not just create a Jesus from Bethlehem and save all the trouble?

The obvious answer is that it's there because the historical Yeshua WAS from Nazareth and was well known to have been a Galilean. The Jesus Mythers, on the other hand, have no answer to this question. Well, apart from the ones who try to pretend Nazareth never existed, but they are a total joke. The Israel Antiquity Authority and the Maurice Greenberg Centre for Judaic Studies are conducting digs on First Century sites in Nazareth right now.

So the fact that Jesus is "Jesus of Nazareth" is a major fly in the Jesus Myth ointment.
Then it was suggested that Matthew cited a supposed prophecy about the messiah being from Nazareth:

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If Matthew is not talking about Judges 13, then what is he talking about when he says that Jesus was fulfilling prophesy that the messiah would be a nazarene/nazirite?
That's a good question and it's one that fundie apologists have spilled a lot of ink trying to answer. They believe that the Bible is inerrant, so if Matthew says there is a prophecy about Jesus that can't be found in the OT, this poses them a major problem. I won't bore you with their convoluted "solutions" because they are irrelevant here.

So why does Matthew put this "prophecy" in here if it doesn't actually exist. A clue lies in the words he uses to introduce the supposed text: "So was fulfilled what was said through the prophets: "He will be called a Nazarene." Note that he refers not to a prophet, but more broadly (and vaguely) to "the prophets" (plural). Which prophets? Where? Who knows. And that seems to be the point.

Elsewhere Matthew is far more specific. His usual formula for introducing a prophecy is to name the prophet (eg Matt 2:17) or to quote the prophecy directly (eg Matt 1:22-23) and refer to "the prophet" (singular) who made it. But here he is non-specific, oddly vague and uses a broader plural.

The reason seems to be that he had attempted to show how all the other major events in the story fitted with Messianic prophecies, but there was no such prophecy about Nazareth. So this rather vague so-called "prophecy" is invoked, though with a formula that doesn't make it clear which "prophets" supposedly "said" the Messiah was to be from Nazareth. It waves a generalised sort of prophecy over Nazareth without actually citing one specifically.

The reason for the need to invent this non-existent prophecy and couch it in this vague attribution was the fact that Nazareth was a stumbling block for Jews who were considering adopting Christianity (ie Matthew's primary audience). Not only was it a town of no religious significance, it was in Galilee - a place called "Galilee of the Gentiles" to the more fastidious Jews in less multicultural and religiously diverse Judea. Matthew (or his sources) needed to try to soften the problems that Jesus' Nazarean origins posed to potential converts.

And he/they needed to do this because he did exist and he was from Nazareth.
How does the JM hypothesis explain this?
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Old 11-26-2008, 12:26 PM   #2
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How does the JM hypothesis explain this?
Some do something like the following:

1. Jesus was called the Nazarene, but the Nazarenes were a sect, not members of a locality.
2. Some tradent, not knowing who the Nazarenes were, invented a place called Nazara by back-formation.
3. Some other tradent, also not knowing who the Nazarenes were, discovered that there was a Galilean town called Nazareth and therefore connected Jesus to that town.

Try the Nazareth discussion thread for more details than the average accountant could stand.

Ben.
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Old 11-26-2008, 01:06 PM   #3
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So, if Jesus was a figment of fiction, why create this problem by having him come from Nazareth in the first place? Nazareth had zero significance of any kind, so why the hell is it in the story; especially considering it caused such a problem?
Mark has a Jesus who kept his identity secret, so having him come from a very small town would help that.

Why did Sir Arthur Conan Doyle place Sherlock Holmes in Baker Street, a street of no significance?
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Old 11-26-2008, 01:39 PM   #4
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A mythicist should have an answer for everything, I supose, but I would argue that the reason why Jesus was from Nazareth in Luke is because Nazareth was the [little] city of God where Mary was from, which did not exist in Matthew who therefore needed to create the 'prophetic image' to justify the birth of Christ who in Matthew turned out to be an imposter (Mt.27:64) instead of the the real Messiah. My argument here is the prevailing turmoil in the mind of Joseph [as suggested by his flight into Egypt] where Herod did a number on him and so back to Galilee he went without the actual presence of Christ in him but was merely sustained there by the angel of the Lord who elsewhere is called Lucifer (notice the absence of Joseph when the magi arrived).

The census in Luke was not a tax but an account of himself (confession we call it) which there was the grand or final confession wherein the confessor himself was moved to give birth to the God within (he was 'pregnant with despair' as Joyce put it) . . . and of course, one must be moved to get there in a non-rational way so that the first mover is God via Mary who was from Nazareth indeed and finally is thus is also why Christ was from Judaic descend.

I should add here that despite the tragic ending, Matthew is very much inspired because a great deal of insight is required to blend these two Gospels in such a way that the apparent contradictions compliment each other to make the difference between hell and heaven known.
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Old 11-26-2008, 01:42 PM   #5
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Originally Posted by Topher View Post
How does the JM hypothesis explain this?
Some do something like the following:

1. Jesus was called the Nazarene, but the Nazarenes were a sect, not members of a locality.
2. Some tradent, not knowing who the Nazarenes were, invented a place called Nazara by back-formation.
3. Some other tradent, also not knowing who the Nazarenes were, discovered that there was a Galilean town called Nazareth and therefore connected Jesus to that town.
Sounds like a umm, reduced version of comments from me, but "[h]ow does the JM hypothesis explain this?"


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Old 11-26-2008, 01:54 PM   #6
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Sounds like a umm, reduced version of comments from me, but "[h]ow does the JM hypothesis explain this?"
Yes, yes, after accosting someone else in another thread for lumping agnostics in with mythicists I turn around and do pretty much the same thing. :blush:

A foolish consistency is the hobgoblin of little minds. —R. W. Emerson.

Do I contradict myself? Very well, then, I contradict myself. —Walt Whitman.

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Old 11-26-2008, 02:02 PM   #7
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I think Richard Carrier and others certainly have a plausible hypothesis that should be taken more seriously by the mainstream.
Has Richard Carrier actually come out with his own hypothesis? Or do you mean Earl Doherty? Just wondering.
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Old 11-26-2008, 02:20 PM   #8
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I think Richard Carrier and others certainly have a plausible hypothesis that should be taken more seriously by the mainstream.
Has Richard Carrier actually come out with his own hypothesis? Or do you mean Earl Doherty? Just wondering.
I mean the hypothesis that Carrier argues, which I believe is in line with Doherty's.
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Old 11-26-2008, 03:09 PM   #9
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Has Richard Carrier actually come out with his own hypothesis? Or do you mean Earl Doherty? Just wondering.
I mean the hypothesis that Carrier argues, which I believe is in line with Doherty's.
I don't think he argues any hypothesis at the moment, though he is hoping to write a book on questions on historicity and methodology. He has written a webpage reviewing Doherty's book, and has come down on the side of mythicism. But with respect to Doherty's theories, he has made it clear that he finds problems there. On his blog here, he briefly mentions his review of Doherty "with whom I still have as much disagreement as agreement"
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Old 11-26-2008, 04:56 PM   #10
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Matthew and Luke appear to be both derived from Mark (and the much-debated Q), but they reflect different traditions which did not consult one another. As another example of drastic differences, witness their competing genealogies of Jesus. Does this prove "one of them is correct"? Pish.

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