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Old 06-07-2010, 03:10 AM   #1
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Default The appendix in the back of my old RSV.

The back of my old RSV published 1952 by Collins in the USA has an appendix which describes the various books of the NT briefly.
In conventional orthodox terms based largely on patristic legends.
It describes the 4 canonical gospels thus [in this order] and I have summarised:

Matthew: - "apostle, Hebrew tax collector, written in Judea c.60 CE, pious Jew."

Mark: - "associate of Paul, may be based on material from Peter, aimed at the Romans."

Luke: -" 'the beloved physician', close friend and travelling companion of Paul, c.63 CE, probably written in Caesarea."

John: - ""apostle of Christ", also wrote Rev. and 3 epistles, written in Ephesus c 98 CE"


Hmmm.
OK, we may wish to question some of that.

If you, dear FRDB commenter, were to write a similar synopsis of the above based on your understanding, what would you write?
Care to justify same?
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Old 06-07-2010, 05:19 AM   #2
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Default scholarship versus prejudice

Quote:
Originally Posted by yalla
Care to justify same?
Thanks yalla for the invitation to write our own synopsis of the likely dates of authorship of the various gospels, and letters of Paul, with a rationale for the dates of each....

I would like someone to justify the dates you have furnished, which correspond, in my opinion, to the dates accepted by the vast majority of practicing Christians.....

If one poses this question of dates of authorship to a practicing Christian, the near universally contemptuous response would be:
Quote:
it is unimportant, the point is to have faith in the divinity of jesus...
In my opinion, there is insufficient evidence to pinpoint a precise date of origin, for any of the various books of the new testament. There are conflicting sources, and well established forgeries among the handful of extant papyrus copies of documents--we possess no original Magna Charta.

So, while it is well and good of you, to inquire about our faith or, our belief, or, in my case, our prejudice, about the actual dates of composition, it would be more useful, in my opinion, to ask forum members for evidence to support the dates which your venerable bible lists....

I am unable even to resolve the question outstanding for the past year, regarding a single passage in Mark, 7:31, because the (supposedly) oldest manuscript in our possession, Chester Beatty, P45, dated (by handwriting analysis!!) to Third Century, contradicts my long cherished belief, that Codices Sinaiticus and Vaticanus represent the most authoritative versions, not the later, Byzantine texts. P45 has the same reading as the later, Byzantine bibles, so what does that mean, vis a vis the most reliable copy of the original text of Mark?

With respect to your query, re: our evidence for alternative dates of authorship of the gospels and letters of Paul, how can one even begin to address that question, when we are unsure which extant ancient text to rely upon, in furnishing an answer to that question? Someone, somewhere, changed the text of Mark 7:31. Who, when, why? We don't know.

Did they rewrite the text, because Mark was written before the other gospels, and, accordingly, contained a conflict with the same account in Matthew and Luke, a significant discrepancy, which demanded revision of Mark? Or, alternatively, did someone, perhaps malevolently, change Mark from its original version (if one believes that the Byzantine/P45 text represents the ink flowing off Mark's pen), inserting a deliberate error, (dia sidwnos) so as to render the text imperfect, i.e. obviously not divinely inspired? (We know that it is an error, not only because the phrase is absent in Matthew and Luke, but also because it is not found in P45.) But, if that error was deliberately inserted, then, which other errors have been introduced?

avi
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Old 06-07-2010, 05:51 AM   #3
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" .....to ask forum members for evidence to support the dates which your venerable bible lists...."

That was my intention actually. It may have been unclear.
Not just the dates but the identities of the authors and locale of writing.

To question the orthodox views presented in my RSV.

Cos I reckon scholarship/academia has, AFAICS, moved on from the descriptions I copied.

Hasn't it?
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Old 06-07-2010, 06:42 AM   #4
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Quote:
Originally Posted by yalla View Post
" .....to ask forum members for evidence to support the dates which your venerable bible lists...."

That was my intention actually. It may have been unclear.
Not just the dates but the identities of the authors and locale of writing.

To question the orthodox views presented in my RSV.

Cos I reckon scholarship/academia has, AFAICS, moved on from the descriptions I copied.

Hasn't it?
My copy of the NRSV doesn't have an appendix like this, though I have an old paperback RSV that does include it. It may have been supplied by the publisher rather than the translators.

My Jerusalem bible has lots of "irreligious" notes, I haven't looked much at the NT books. The Pre-Nicene New Testament by Robert Price contains all the canonical texts in his own translations, with excellent notes. A lot of the info he presents would be alien to ordinary pew-sitters (eg. gnosticism).

Mass produced bibles are probably the last place to find cutting-edge scholarship. These items are for the average church member, so they can't be too controversial.
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Old 06-07-2010, 02:03 PM   #5
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yalla, you could have a look at this (catholic, jesuit) link :
http://catholic-resources.org/Bible/Evangelists.htm

You will get this info :
Quote:
Mark - bi-lingual Aramaic/Greek interpreter; persecuted Gentile community; late 60's (Rome? later Alexandria?)
Matthew - Jewish-Christian scribe; educated community arguing with other Jews; 70's-80's (Galilee? Antioch?)
Luke - Gentile Christian historian; wealthier urban community becoming complacent; 80's (Antioch? Greece?)
John - Jewish Christian believers, in conflict with the "synagogue across the street"; 90's (Syria? later Ephesus?)
Compare the dates with those of your book...

The newadvent catholic site says this :
http://www.newadvent.org/cathen/06655b.htm

Quote:
The first four historical books of the New Testament are supplied with titles (Euaggelion kata Matthaion, Euaggelion kata Markon, etc.), which, however ancient, do not go back to the respective authors of those sacred writings. The Canon of Muratori, Clement of Alexandria, and St. Irenæus bear distinct witness to the existence of those headings in the latter part of the second century of our era. Indeed, the manner in which Clement (Strom., I, xxi), and St. Irenæus (Adv. Hær., III, xi, 7) employ them implies that, at that early date, our present titles to the Gospels had been in current use for some considerable time. Hence, it may be inferred that they were prefixed to the evangelical narratives as early as the first part of that same century. That, however, they do not go back to the first century of the Christian era, or at least that they are not original, is a position generally held at the present day.
... and this, in the same page :
Quote:
The second word common to the titles of the canonical Gospels is the preposition kata, "according to", the exact import of which has long been a matter of discussion among Biblical scholars. Apart from various secondary meanings connected with that Greek particle, two principal significations have been ascribed to it. Many authors have taken it to mean not "written by", but "drawn up according to the conception of", Matthew, Mark, etc. In their eyes, the titles of our Gospels were not intended to indicate authorship, but to state the authority guaranteeing what is related, in about the same way as "the Gospel according to the Hebrews", or "the Gospel according to the Egyptians", does not mean the Gospel written by the Hebrews or the Egyptians, but that peculiar form of Gospel which either the Hebrews or the Egyptians had accepted.
Mark, Matthew, Luke, and John are not the authors of the gospels. Most scholars hold to the view that the disciples wrote nothing and that the names were attached to the gospels in the second century and that they were not written by eyewitnesses.
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Old 06-07-2010, 11:16 PM   #6
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Ta, Huon
It seems a slow progression doesn't it?

Your link acknowledges "Markan" priority whereas my RSV conspicuously avoids putting a date to g"Mark",
However your link [I hope you don't mind me referring to it as such] still manages to put "Mark" pre Roman Jewish War and the rest of the gospels well within the first century.

I would agree with your final sentence above and the incongruity of that as contrasted to the 'appendix of my old RSV' was what prompted the OP.
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Old 06-07-2010, 11:48 PM   #7
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Huon

Looking at your site I saw this:
"Initial Texts were Anonymous (the authors are not named in the texts):
possible self-references: Mark 14:51-52; Matt 13:52; Luke 1:1-4; John 21:20, 24; 19:35 ?
"

So the author of the site is [tentatively] associating the gospels with the authors favoured by patristic convention.

-"Mark" 14.51
This is actually probably straight plagiarism from the Jewish Bible.
I refer to 'the young man' as Amos cos thats probably the origin of the story in "Mark".
Amos 2.16
"and he who is stout of heart among the mighty shall flee away naked in that day"
There is no reason to consider it a self reference by the author of the gospel.

-"Matthew" 13.52
Mentions a scribe, that's all. Extremely thin 'evidence' on which to hang purported authorship.

-"John" Chapter 21 is widely interpreted as a later interpolation. As such has no relevance to alleged authorship of Chs 1-20.

19.35 only refers specifically to an alleged single episode [the spearing of JC] and gives no specific clue as to was supposed to be the witness [such is only 'named' as "He who saw it..."] and the account of such appears to be from someone else other than the alleged witness and I have a note that these lines are missing from some old mss [that might require checking].

-"Luke" 1.1-4 does not mean that that the author him[?]self was an eyewitness and it is not explained what "the word" actually entails.
Kerygma?
The same as Paul attests to despite not witnessing any event as outlined in "Luke's" gospel?

As indicators of the authors of the gospels its pretty thin stuff isn't it?
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Old 06-08-2010, 01:45 AM   #8
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The oldest known manuscripts of the NT are :
fourth century : Codex Vaticanus, Codex Sinaiticus.
fifth century : Codex Alexandrinus, Codex Bezae, Codex Ephraemi Rescriptus, Codex Syriacus (in Old Syriac).

Nobody knows exactly what happened to the original texts of the gospels between, say the late 60s (to be generous) and the beginning of the fourth century.

The dating of the gospels should also take into account the history of the orthodoxy (as we know it after Nicea 325) and the history of the various christian sects, qualified heretics by the Fathers of the catholic Church.

It would be very surprising (a miracle ?) that the official gospels were orthodox as soon as the end of the first century, and needed no updating at all during the episode of Marcion. Marcion used some sort of a short version of Luke, minus the name "Luke". He wasn't necessarily considered a heretic at first, and for a time he even hoped to be elected as the Christian bishop of Rome.
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Old 06-08-2010, 06:02 AM   #9
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Question : who was the eyewitness, apart the Magi, for this ?
Mt 2: 1-12 Magi Visit (Special Matthew)
Mt 2:13-23 Flight into Egypt and Return (Special Matthew)

Did the Magi inform Levi-Matthew, before 60 CE, of an event which took place at the birth of JC ?
Why did Mark, Luke, and John ignore this important event ?
Possibly Mt 2 is a late addition ?
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Old 06-08-2010, 07:04 AM   #10
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Huon View Post
The oldest known manuscripts of the NT are :
fourth century : Codex Vaticanus, Codex Sinaiticus.
fifth century : Codex Alexandrinus, Codex Bezae, Codex Ephraemi Rescriptus, Codex Syriacus (in Old Syriac).
Those are the oldest manuscripts that contain all the canonical books of the New Testament. There are lots of earlier incomplete manuscripts and fragments of manuscripts, some of which are from the early third century or, barely possibly, late second.
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