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08-22-2005, 07:20 PM
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#1 |
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Yarwntwnwia
(Yet Another Reason Why the NT Was Not Written In Aramaic)
Props to Justin Eiler on this one. Matthew 21:7. Why are there two animals when the Hebrew only has one? Why would an Aramaic writer make the same mistake, but then try to correct it by dividing Jesus and his clothes? |
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08-22-2005, 10:23 PM
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#2 |
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(Yet Another Reason Why the NT Was Not Written In Aramaic)
Why would an Aramaic speaker translate the name Barnabas, brnb), in Acts 4:36 to mean "son of consolation", when by parts bar and naba it clearly means "son of prophecy" (or "son who prophecies")? One can understand the Greek getting it wrong, but why translate a transparent name... wrongly? spin |
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08-23-2005, 07:00 AM
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#3 |
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...and somehow, Protestant idiots think the King James' Version Bible is the most "accurate" translation of the damn book around, these days.
*sigh* --sometimes, I despair for the future of humanity NB |
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08-23-2005, 09:28 AM
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#4 | |
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Quote:
So why can the future not find consolation in the present with the birth of the son? Now I can understand this to leave the Aramaic speaker somewhat bewildered (to say the least) but why can they not go look for themselves as the shepherds did so they will understand? |
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08-23-2005, 10:10 AM
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#5 | |
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Quote:
spin |
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08-23-2005, 11:56 AM
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#6 | |
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Quote:
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08-23-2005, 01:22 PM
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I'm just curious: are there any Aramaic inscriptions in Corinth to substantiate the idea of an Aramaic-speaking population there?
(The absence of such inscriptions would tend to discredit Aramaic priority, but their presence would not support it, anymore than the presence of numerous Greek inscriptions proves Greek priority--this argument is a one way street.) thanks, Peter Kirby |
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08-24-2005, 02:42 PM
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#8 |
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I thought that the Aramaic primacists believe that there was one Aramaic translator there (for whatever reason) and he translated it for the community. Talk about being forced.
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