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Old 06-11-2009, 03:49 PM   #1
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Default authenticity of the trinitarian baptismal formula in Matthew 28:19

The editors of the NET Bible, among them Dan Wallace, write in their notes to Matt 28:19:
Although some scholars have denied that the trinitarian baptismal formula in the Great Commission was a part of the original text of Matthew, there is no ms support for their contention. F. C. Conybeare, "The Eusebian Form of the Text of Mt. 28:19," ZNW 2 (1901): 275-88, based his view on a faulty reading of Eusebius’ quotations of this text. The shorter reading has also been accepted, on other grounds, by a few other scholars. For discussion (and refutation of the conjecture that removes this baptismal formula), see B. J. Hubbard, The Matthean Redaction of a Primitive Apostolic Commissioning (SBLDS 19), 163-64, 167-75; and Jane Schaberg, The Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit (SBLDS 61), 27-29.

The immediate question, of course, is, what was the faulty reading, and why was it faulty? Unfortunately, I do not have access to the two books recommended. Further, I do not know what "ZNW 2" stands for, and no search of "Conybeare" yields helpful results. So I took to searching JSTOR, and the first hit on the subject, G.H. Gilbert, had this to say:
There is a court of last appeal before which the genuineness of the baptismal formula in Matt. 28:19 has not yet been brought. Mr. Conybeare showed in the Hibbert Journal for I903, pp. I02-8, that there is important external evidence against the existence of this formula in manuscripts current before the time of Eusebius...
--Gilbert, George Holley. "The Baptismal Formula of Matt. 28:19, in the Light of Jesus' Unquestionable Teaching." The Biblical World, Vol. 34, No. 6 (Dec., 1909), p374.

What is this "important external evidence," exactly? Is it just the quotations of Matt 28:19 in Eusebius' volumes?

I found a few more relevant comments in the scholarly literature casting doubt on the authenticity of the formula. However, my university server decided to flake out during the writing of this post, so I cannot quote them at the moment. For now, suffice it to say that the majority of the discussions I found concluded that the baptismal formula is a later addition to the text of Matthew.

Yet this seems extremely strange. If there are no extant manuscripts of Mt 28:19 lacking the formula, certainly its authenticity is at best uncertain! Moreover, the Didache and Tertullian both quote this formula, I am told, which improves the case for its genuineness all the more.

Any thoughts?
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Old 06-11-2009, 04:37 PM   #2
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ZNW = Zeitschrift fur die neutestamentliche Wissenschaft.

I'll try to ILL a PDF of the paper for you.
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Old 06-11-2009, 05:00 PM   #3
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This religious essay quotes Conybeare and the Encyclopedia of Religion and Ethics:

Quote:
Writes F.C. Conybeare: "In the course of my reading I have been able to substantiate these doubts of the authenticity of the text of Matthew 28:19 by adducing patristic evidence against it so weighty that in future the most conservative of divines will shrink from resting on it any dogmatic fabric at all while the most enlightened will discard it as completely as they have its fellow text of the Three Witnesses [I John 5:7] " and ". . . of any other form of text [Eusebius] had never heard until he had visited Constantinople and attended the Council of Nice [Hibbert Journal, 1902].

...

"The facts are, in summary, that Eusebius quotes Matthew 28:19 twenty-one times, either omitting everything between 'nations' and 'teaching', or in the form 'make disciples of all nations in my name', the latter being the more frequent" (Encyclopedia of Religion and Ethics (or via: amazon.co.uk))
The Search for the Origins of Christian Worship (or via: amazon.co.uk) By Paul F. Bradshaw on google books page 60:
Quote:
Matthew 28:16-20 contains the command to baptize all nations, but there are difficulties in accepting this as an authentic saying of the risen Lord, not least because Christian baptisms seem at first to have been 'in the name of Jesus' rather than of the Trinity, as in the Matthean text.

...

[Footnote 64.] See Benjamin J. Hubbard, The Matthean Redaction of a Primitive Apostolic Commissioning: an exegesis of Matthew 28:16-20 (Missoula MT 1974). The trinitarian formula may be a much later addition to the Matthean text: see H.B. Green, 'Matthew 28:19, Eusebius, and the lex orandi', in Rown Williams, ed. The Making of Orthodoxy (Cambridge/New York 1989), pp. 124-41. The criticism made by Cyprian, Ep 74.5;75.18, appears to indicate that the church at Rome in the third century was still willing to accept the sufficientcy of baptisms in the name of Jesus alone, even if its own practice was now trinitarian.
Of course, for most of us at this site, the "risen Lord" is a myth and did not say anything, so this passage is inauthentic to start off with.

ETA: There is more discussion at The Lord’s Command to Baptize: Part II A Disputed Ending of a Gospel
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Old 06-11-2009, 06:17 PM   #4
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When you simply see initials like that in a source citation, especially followed by a number, it is usually a Journal of some kind. Z = "Zeitschrift."

The reasoning behind the suspicion that a phrase or sentence/paragraph is later than the rest of a text is generally the same as that used to question the Pauline pastoral letters on the basis that the church organization seems more developed than it "should be" for Paul's time. Other books of the NT and early Christian literature doesn't use trinitarian formulae or attribute universalist missionary language to Jesus until the late 2nd century AD.

Of course, one is free to question whether these ideas weren't known in early Christian circles but simply unexpressed in the early published literature of the sect.

There is also the issue of how the NT books came to be published. The process may involve a certain amount of editing or redacting, either to polish something up or update it to reflect the theology or historical understandings current at time of publication.

Not only can things get added, but things get deleted as well, for any number of reasons.

Dan Wallace is an extreme Christian conservative, but he knows his Greek NT like the back of his hand. See for yourself:
http://www.bible.org/author.php?author_id=1

DCH

Quote:
Originally Posted by hatsoff View Post
The editors of the NET Bible, among them Dan Wallace, write in their notes to Matt 28:19:
Although some scholars have denied that the trinitarian baptismal formula in the Great Commission was a part of the original text of Matthew, there is no ms support for their contention. F. C. Conybeare, "The Eusebian Form of the Text of Mt. 28:19," ZNW 2 (1901): 275-88, based his view on a faulty reading of Eusebius’ quotations of this text. The shorter reading has also been accepted, on other grounds, by a few other scholars. For discussion (and refutation of the conjecture that removes this baptismal formula), see B. J. Hubbard, The Matthean Redaction of a Primitive Apostolic Commissioning (SBLDS 19), 163-64, 167-75; and Jane Schaberg, The Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit (SBLDS 61), 27-29.

The immediate question, of course, is, what was the faulty reading, and why was it faulty? Unfortunately, I do not have access to the two books recommended. Further, I do not know what "ZNW 2" stands for, and no search of "Conybeare" yields helpful results. So I took to searching JSTOR, and the first hit on the subject, G.H. Gilbert, had this to say:
There is a court of last appeal before which the genuineness of the baptismal formula in Matt. 28:19 has not yet been brought. Mr. Conybeare showed in the Hibbert Journal for I903, pp. I02-8, that there is important external evidence against the existence of this formula in manuscripts current before the time of Eusebius...
--Gilbert, George Holley. "The Baptismal Formula of Matt. 28:19, in the Light of Jesus' Unquestionable Teaching." The Biblical World, Vol. 34, No. 6 (Dec., 1909), p374.

What is this "important external evidence," exactly? Is it just the quotations of Matt 28:19 in Eusebius' volumes?

I found a few more relevant comments in the scholarly literature casting doubt on the authenticity of the formula. However, my university server decided to flake out during the writing of this post, so I cannot quote them at the moment. For now, suffice it to say that the majority of the discussions I found concluded that the baptismal formula is a later addition to the text of Matthew.

Yet this seems extremely strange. If there are no extant manuscripts of Mt 28:19 lacking the formula, certainly its authenticity is at best uncertain! Moreover, the Didache and Tertullian both quote this formula, I am told, which improves the case for its genuineness all the more.

Any thoughts?
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Old 06-12-2009, 04:53 AM   #5
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For Conybeare's Article see
Conybeare

Andrew Criddle
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Old 06-13-2009, 03:05 PM   #6
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Thanks very much for the replies, guys. Thanks especially to the fellow who sent me a pdf of the Conybeare article.

It looks to me like Conybeare and others have simply exaggerated the importance of the quotations in Eusebius.

I would like to verify that the trinitarian formula is present in Sinaiticus, Vaticanus and P67, the oldest Greek mss. of the passage known to me. Hopefully I can track down facsimilies and/or translations of these mss.
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Old 06-15-2009, 06:59 AM   #7
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It does seem weird that at one point in that gospel, Jesus would say that he only came to the "lost sheep of Israel" and when he sends out his disciples to preach the coming of the kingdom of heaven, he says not go into any Gentile/Samaritan towns - and then at the end of this same gospel he does a 180 and tells his disciples to make disciples of "all nations".
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