DinoStoned

:banghead:
Jesus was referring to a woman as "Woman", which I am sure lots of people do even in real life. And what did Jesus saying 'woman' had to do with Genesis?

Maybe. Depending on the seriousness of the discussion.

DinoStoned

I am what? Please quote the relevant part of my post that you are responding to.

What does our discussion boil down to? The existence of God. Understanding the parables of Jesus? Sure.
Attempting them? What do you mean by attempting them... do you expect me to adopt two sons and ensure that one of them becomes a prodigal son?

ozchick

Visionary7, the word 'woman' appears 367 times in the KJV. You cannot randomy link unrelated passages by a common word and expect to be taken seriously.

Perhaps if you had scrolled down your page a little further and used Genesis 3:15 you just might be able to argue that passage relates to Christ (doubtful given your discussion skills, but maybe). There is no reason to believe Jesus was referring "indisceetly" to your passage in Genesis based solely on His use of the term 'woman', anymore than the other 365 times it is used in the Word are directly relating to it.

Agnostic Theist

Does mastubation count, cos I never screwed myself so I gues, in that sense, I don't know God

And in reply to THAT joke (of mine, not yours) :banghead: :banghead: :banghead:

chapka

I don't think it is possible, because only arguments can be refuted, and as far as I can tell you haven't made an argument. You've just pointed out that your bible translation uses the same word twice.

If you're a native English speaker, try speaking your posts out loud to see if they make sense before you post them. Honestly, I have no idea what you're trying to say here. Also, I don't think you know what "indiscreet" means.

P.S.--Care to try addressing my arguments yet? Or still just preaching?

DinoStoned

Nah, masturbation doesn't really count as knowing yourself. They refer to it as the Sin of Onan, for which you will be struck blind.
For it to count... well, I have an idea how, but it'll probably get my post edited for extreme sexual content.

(Note: Since Onan was punished because he spilled his valuable seed- he was punished for the results of his actions, not his actions, so female masturbation doesn't actually go against any Biblical laws, does it? Off-topic, but just an interesting thought)

Well, I guess I better stop it now. This is going off-topic...

DinoStoned

I think he's trying to throw together an argument from two unrelated Biblical verses and pat himself on the back for being such a clever boy.

Agnostic Theist

For some reason I felt pointed to this verse because of Christ's use of the word 'woman', it seems synonymous but I would conclude that Jesus is omniscient. Does anyone see how the verse she shall be called woman was said so indiscreetly by Jesus at the beginning of the his spoken words. I'm suprised how I get into these little details.


What does synonymous have to do with omniscience? What is 'woman' synonymous of in this context?

Magdlyn

If Jesus consciously used the word "woman" to refer to Eve, and perhaps hint that his mom was a new Eve, this is not use of a synonym or proof of omniscience.

Synonym means two words with the same meaning, not the same exact word used twice. But I have referred V7 to use of a grammar textbook before. Perhaps an online dictionary would also help?

www.dictionary.com

If Jesus was using the word "woman" to make a theological point, it does not show omniscience, just that he had read Genesis, or had it read to him, and remembered the verse. Like any good Jew.

By indiscreet, I think V7 means "disrespectful."

(BTW, "refute" is a verb, not a noun.)

Sadly, American English is his first language, as I determined early on. Texan, to be exact. He does admit to posting while drunk at least sometimes however, which could inhibit proper communication, IME.

Agnostic Theist

Damn Americans!


We gave you a language, kindly learn to use it!