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Old 04-27-2006, 01:01 PM   #1
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Default Another Eusebian Tell? Did he leave his fingerprints in 1 Cor 15?

From the thread "What are the implications of this passage?"

Quote:
Originally Posted by PhilosopherJay
Hi Brightlights,

In my new book The Evolution of Christs and Christianities (or via: amazon.co.uk), [or in paperback here (or via: amazon.co.uk) - mod] I demonstrate that the phrase "to this very day" is a "tell" of Bishop Eusebius. Whenever he forged/reworked a passage in an historical document, he seems to have practically always used this phrase. It was probably not a conscious thing that he did, but an unconscious tick or habit. I give a dozen examples of this in the book. However this is not included.

That the E.T. (Eusebean Tell) is found in this passage makes me suspect that it was added by Eusebius in the Fourth century to the text. I have previously suspected him of editing the last few chapters of the Book of Acts of the Apostles, but this is the first thing that makes me suspect that he also edited a canonical gospel.

I need to do more research on this when I find the time.

Warmly,

Jay Raskin
I am reading this book now (which I recommend to all of you), and the first thing that struck me when I read about the Eusebian Tell was that passage from 1 Cor 15:

Quote:
Originally Posted by Young's Literal Translation
3 for I delivered to you first, what also I did receive, that Christ died for our sins, according to the Writings,

4 and that he was buried, and that he hath risen on the third day, according to the Writings,

5 and that he appeared to Cephas, then to the twelve,


6 afterwards he appeared to above five hundred brethren at once, of whom the greater part remain till now, and certain also did fall asleep;

7 afterwards he appeared to James, then to all the apostles.
It's not exactly the same wording, but as I recall some of Jay's examples were a similar sort of phrase with the same idea - some of those people are still alive, you can go check for yourself.
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Old 04-27-2006, 03:32 PM   #2
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Toto



I am reading this book now (which I recommend to all of you), and the first thing that struck me when I read about the Eusebian Tell was that passage from 1 Cor 15:


Eusebian tells are easily disproved. There is no possible way such alterations could have made it inot the peshitta if they were the work of Eusebius.

Unless someone is prepared to propose a way they might have at this late stage?
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Old 04-27-2006, 06:37 PM   #3
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Default Another E.T... Definitely.

Hi Toto,

Bingo!

This happens to be one of the first lines from Paul that Eusebius quotes in his History. He quotes it in the chapter right after his quote of the Testimonium.

12.3 Matthias, also, who was numbered with the apostles in the place of Judas, and the one who was honored by being made a candidate with him, are like-wise said to have been deemed worthy of the same calling with the seventy. They say that Thaddeus also was one of them, concerning whom I shall presently relate an account which has come down to us. And upon examination you will find that our Saviour had more than seventy disciples, according to the testimony of Paul, who says that after his resurrection from the dead he appeared first to Cephas, then to the twelve, and after them to above five hundred brethren at once, of whom some had fallen asleep;but the majority were still living at the time he wrote.

I think Eusebius' use of this passage this early in his History shows how important the passage was to him. It has really nothing to do with what he is talking about. He seems to be trying to introduce Thaddeus as one of the Seventy. What does Paul's statement of who saw the risen Christ have to do with that? It is not logical for Paul to introduce the statement here, so why does he do it?

Actually in the book, I analyze this passage (pg 502-504), I conclude that it was originally two lists:
List 1.
1. Cephas
2. All the Apostles
3. James
List 2:
1. James
2. All the Apostles
3. Cephas
Why did Eusebius combine the two lists and add the five hundred? My best guess is that this was written some time shortly after the Council of Nicea. The Emperor Constantine brought together over 300 Bishops at that Council. I think that Eusebius was trying to suggest that every one of those Bishops were related to a follower of Jesus. He might have picked the number 500 because he expected the next council to have that many Bishops and he wanted to include the new ones. Alternatively, it may have been just before Nicea and he was expecting 500 Bishops to show up.

In any case, I would put the phrase "most of whom are still alive" in the E.T. category and would suggest that Eusebius may be regarded as having added this passage to Paul's letter.

Thanks so much for pointing this out.


Warmly,

Philosophe Jay

Quote:
Originally Posted by Toto
From the thread "What are the implications of this passage?"



I am reading this book now (which I recommend to all of you), and the first thing that struck me when I read about the Eusebian Tell was that passage from 1 Cor 15:



It's not exactly the same wording, but as I recall some of Jay's examples were a similar sort of phrase with the same idea - some of those people are still alive, you can go check for yourself.
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Old 04-27-2006, 06:38 PM   #4
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Default Peshitta and Eusebius?

Hi Judge,

Please explain what you believe the relationship of the Peshitta is to Eusebius? What are your sources for dating the Peshitta before Eusebius?

Warmly,

Philosopher Jay

Quote:
Originally Posted by judge
Eusebian tells are easily disproved. There is no possible way such alterations could have made it inot the peshitta if they were the work of Eusebius.

Unless someone is prepared to propose a way they might have at this late stage?
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Old 04-27-2006, 07:05 PM   #5
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How can one person be responsible for introducing something new to entire corpus of a letter of Paul as late as the 4th century? Weren't there copies of this letter in geographically seperated places that he couldn't have altered? How was it that only his line of alterations survived? Or maybe I'm not understanding something properly?
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Old 04-27-2006, 07:13 PM   #6
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Default Motive and Opportunity

Hi Rumike,

This is a good point. There were very few people who had the motive and opportunity to change letters of Paul after the Third Century. Having the Emperor as his Patron and Friend provided Eusebius with a unique opportunity to fine tune the New Testament and have his changes accepted throughout the Empire. Nobody really had that power afterward, and few before.

Warmly,

Philosopher Jay

Quote:
Originally Posted by RUmike
How can one person be responsible for introducing something new to entire corpus of a letter of Paul as late as the 4th century? Weren't there copies of this letter in geographically seperated places that he couldn't have altered? How was it that only his line of alterations survived? Or maybe I'm not understanding something properly?
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Old 04-27-2006, 08:21 PM   #7
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First Corinthians 15:6 is extant in P46, a manuscript about a hundred years older than Eusebius. Eusebius cannot have authored it without a supernatural miracle.

Stephen Carlson
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Old 04-27-2006, 10:23 PM   #8
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Quote:
Originally Posted by S.C.Carlson
First Corinthians 15:6 is extant in P46, a manuscript about a hundred years older than Eusebius. Eusebius cannot have authored it without a supernatural miracle.

Stephen Carlson
That's what I thought might be the case.

How firm is the dating of P46? Is it possible that Eusebius liked the passage because it reflected his own thinking, but it was actually interpolated by someone else? It definitely seems to stick out like a sore thumb.
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Old 04-28-2006, 01:18 AM   #9
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Dating of P46
Quote:
Because P46 was discovered outside of its archaeological context (it was purchased from antiquities dealers in Egypt), there is no external evidence to help date the codex. Instead, scholars date this, like so many other papyri, using palaeography, the study of writing style. Since handwriting styles change steadily over time, it is possible to give a papyrus a rough date (accurate to within 50 years) by comparing its handwriting to that of other papyri. Using this method, scholars date P46 to the third century AD.
Darrel Doughty:
Quote:
. . . the field of palaeography is highly subjective. With regard to P46, there is simply not enough comparative material to reach a firm conclusion. It is generally recognized that the writing is similar to materials dated around the close of the second century. But materials with different writing are found only at the beginning of the fourth century. As far as anyone can determine, P46 could have been written anytime in the third century. Then we have the problem that a given scribe could have written in the same way for fifty or sixty years. Or scribes might have imitated earlier hand-writing.
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Old 04-28-2006, 05:07 AM   #10
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Toto
How firm is the dating of P46? Is it possible that Eusebius liked the passage because it reflected his own thinking, but it was actually interpolated by someone else? It definitely seems to stick out like a sore thumb.
P46 is usually dated c. 200, which should be viewed as plus or minus fifty years. Some people want to argue the early side, but even the late part of the range predates Eusebius. (Compare this with Vaticanus and Sinaiticus, which are either contemporary or just later than Eusebius.)

The "until this very day" Eusebianism is εις ετι νυν but in 1 Cor 15:6 the phrase is different εως αρτι. Under standard criticism, it is indeed thought to be an interpolation, but an interpolation by Paul of an earlier tradition. I haven't thought of a scribe glossing Paul before--does William O. Walker have anything to say about it?

Stephen
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