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Old 03-23-2006, 09:18 PM   #1
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Default Romans 13 Mistranslated?

Romans 13, verses 1-3 read as follows in the English version of the Christian bible:

1 Let every soul be subject unto the higher powers. For there is no power but of God: the powers that be are ordained of God.

2 Whosoever therefore resisteth the power, resisteth the ordinance of God: and they that resist shall receive to themselves damnation.

3 For rulers are not a terror to good works, but to the evil. Wilt thou then not be afraid of the power? do that which is good, and thou shalt have praise of the same:


I was discussing these verses with a friend of mine and he claimed that in the original Hebrew version these verses specified that a Christian was only to unquestioningly obey rulers of a specific bloodline (he didn't say which bloodline). I did searches at Google as well as this site and was unable to find any information about this. I'm wondering if anyone with more Biblical expertise could shed some light on what the original version really does or does not say.

~Thanks
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Old 03-23-2006, 09:24 PM   #2
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There was not an original Hebrew version of Romans. Romans was written in Greek.
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Old 03-23-2006, 09:27 PM   #3
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Okay, he probably meant Greek then. Still, the question remains.
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Old 03-23-2006, 09:38 PM   #4
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Anonimus
...he claimed that in the original Hebrew version these verses specified that a Christian was only to unquestioningly obey rulers of a specific bloodline (he didn't say which bloodline).
Unless it is some subltetly of which I am unaware, there is nothing in the underlying Greek of these verses that indicate anything about a "specific bloodline".

Interestingly, these verses have always bothered me. Perhaps I just do not understand them well. It seems, from the Bible, that Jesus did "good works", and the "rulers", therefore, should not have "feared" him. But they obviously did, and considered him enough of a threat to kill him. Hmm... Apologists?
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Old 03-23-2006, 09:49 PM   #5
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So is it fair to say, then, that the meaning is essentially the same in the Greek and English versions?
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Old 03-24-2006, 05:08 AM   #6
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Anonimus
So is it fair to say, then, that the meaning is essentially the same in the Greek and English versions?
I would say so, yes.
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Old 03-24-2006, 06:31 AM   #7
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Anonimus
Romans 13, verses 1-3 read as follows in the English version of the Christian bible:

1 Let every soul be subject unto the higher powers. For there is no power but of God: the powers that be are ordained of God.

2 Whosoever therefore resisteth the power, resisteth the ordinance of God: and they that resist shall receive to themselves damnation.

3 For rulers are not a terror to good works, but to the evil. Wilt thou then not be afraid of the power? do that which is good, and thou shalt have praise of the same:


I was discussing these verses with a friend of mine and he claimed that in the original Hebrew version these verses specified that a Christian was only to unquestioningly obey rulers of a specific bloodline (he didn't say which bloodline). I did searches at Google as well as this site and was unable to find any information about this. I'm wondering if anyone with more Biblical expertise could shed some light on what the original version really does or does not say.

~Thanks
I have never heard of the 'bloodline' excuse before. When I have discussed this with Christians I contend that it means that we should always obey orders from above no matter what. Yet they say that it only applies if the orders are in line with biblical teachings. There is nothing in the above that says this. It just seems to me that Christians are trying to get out of a sticky situation by adding to the text:banghead:.
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Old 03-24-2006, 02:24 PM   #8
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Quote:
Originally Posted by punk77
I have never heard of the 'bloodline' excuse before. When I have discussed this with Christians I contend that it means that we should always obey orders from above no matter what. Yet they say that it only applies if the orders are in line with biblical teachings. There is nothing in the above that says this. It just seems to me that Christians are trying to get out of a sticky situation by adding to the text:banghead:.
Actually, it is more like interpreting Rom 13 in light of Acts 5:29 ("But Peter and the apostles answered, 'We must obey God rather than any human authority. ...' ").

Stephen
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Old 03-24-2006, 03:47 PM   #9
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Quote:
Originally Posted by S.C.Carlson
it is more like interpreting Rom 13 in light of Acts 5:29
In light of two things, actually: (1) Acts 5:29 and (2) an assumption that the Bible contains no contradictions.
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Old 03-24-2006, 04:00 PM   #10
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Doug Shaver
In light of two things, actually: (1) Acts 5:29 and (2) an assumption that the Bible contains no contradictions.
That's the usual Christian assumption, isn't it? However, I think reading Paul in such a way is dangerous. Paul advocating total allegiance to the state is fairly absurd and not consistent with the rest of Paul, Acts notwithstanding.
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