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Old 01-26-2013, 12:04 AM   #1
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Default Why Does It Have to Be 'Either Or' In the Mythicist Debates?

It was actually aa who started to get me thinking about this. Let's look at John 1:14

Quote:
kai ho logos sarx egeneto kai eskenosen en hemin
The Greek says “and tabernacled amongst us”. The Greek word is as surprising as the literal English equivalent. The English “dwelt” is an attempt at smoothing out the expression of the Greek, but at the same time this English word is also the rendering of the Hebrew verb in the Pentateuch rendered “tabernacled” in the LXX).

Everyone seems to want to emphasize the first part of the saying that he 'became flesh' but the tabernacling stuff makes clear that Jesus wasn't human. Look at the use of the term in Genesis:

Quote:
And Lot dwelt in a city of the neighbouring people, and pitched his tent (eskenosen) in Sodom (Genesis 13:12)
It is important to note that it isn't just that the Word became flesh but also that - his flesh taking is like the pitching of a tent. In other words, this thing called 'Jesus' which was manifest to the contemporary world was flimsy and temporary like a tent - 'only there' for a brief time.

I don't see how this verb can be reasonably applied to a natural birth or a human birth of any kind.
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Old 01-26-2013, 12:13 AM   #2
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When I investigate matters further, it seems the heretics had a version of the text with no 'tabernacling' reference:

Quote:
He also styles Him Son, and Aletheia, and Zoe, and the "Word made flesh, whose glory," he says, "we beheld; and His glory was as that of the Only-begotten given to Him by the Father, full of grace and truth." But what John really does say is this: "And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us; and we beheld His glory, the glory as of the only-begotten of the Father, full of grace and truth."

Καὶ υἱὸν δὲ, καὶ ἀλήθειαν, καὶ ζωὴν λέγει αὐτὸν καὶ λόγον σάρκα γενόμενον· οὗ τὴν δόξαν ἐθεασάμεθά, φησι, καὶ ἦν ἡ δόξα αὐτοῦ, οἵα ἦν ἡ τοῦ μονογενοῦς, ἡ ὑπὸ τοῦ πατρὸς δοθεῖσα αὐτῷ, πλήρης χάριτος καὶ ἀληθείας. Λέγει δὲ οὕτως· Καὶ ὁ λόγος σὰρξ ἐγένετο, καὶ ἐσκήνωσεν ἐν ἡμῖν, καὶ ἐθεασάμεθα τὴν δόξαν αὐτοῦ, δόξαν ὡς μονογενοῦς παρὰ Πατρὸς, πλήρης χάριτος καὶ ἀληθείας[Irenaeus 1.8.5]
What to make of this? Was this an actual textual variant? Would removing the word make a stronger case for a supernatural Jesus? I think so.
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Old 01-26-2013, 12:21 AM   #3
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And notice that - even though Irenaeus makes manifest the heretical text read differently than the text he preferred, he continues to cite his text against the heretics, putting forth the words 'tabernacled' which the heretics apparently did not have:

Quote:
But that the apostle did not speak concerning their conjunctions, but concerning our Lord Jesus Christ, whom he also acknowledges as the Word of God, he himself has made evident. For, summing up his statements respecting the Word previously mentioned by him, he further declares, "And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us." But, according to their hypothesis, the Word did not become flesh at all, inasmuch as He never went outside of the Pleroma, but that Saviour [became flesh] who was formed by a special dispensation [out of all the AEons], and was of later date than the Word. [Irenaeus 1.9.2]
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Old 01-26-2013, 12:31 AM   #4
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Indeed when I start looking at this, it would appear that the idea of 'tabernacling' which is found in the Catholic text has replaced the original concept of the glory given to (= dotheisa) him by the Father. But was this accidental? Dotheisa comes from didomi (= to give) but a very similar concept comes at the heart of the 'Dosithean' sect = Dositheus (from dosis another form of the same verb) or 'gift of God.' This was a Samaritan baptism sect - which according to Abu'l Fath - had people descending into the water in order to become children of 'Dositheus' the prophet like Moses.
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Old 01-26-2013, 12:55 AM   #5
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And then if you want to see who the person was who was 'given' the glory of God, you only have to look to 1 Corinthians chapter 2, especially in the version cited by Clement in the Stromata. After mentioning two revelations one based on 'faith' and the other 'secret' the section ends:

Quote:
Which things are the choice of those men who are sinners. But those who abstain from these things give their thoughts to divine things, and partake of gnostic food. "According to the grace (κατὰ τὴν χάριν)," it is said, "given to me as a wise master builder (τὴν δοθεῖσάν μοι ὡς σοφὸς ἀρχιτέκτων), I have laid the foundation. And another buildeth on it gold and silver, precious stones." Such is the gnostic superstructure on the foundation of faith in Christ Jesus. But "the stubble, and the wood, and the hay," are the additions of heresies. "But the fire shall try every man's work, of what sort it is." In allusion to the gnostic edifice also in the Epistle to the Romans, he says, "For I desire to see you, that I may impart unto you a spiritual gift, that ye may be established." It was impossible that gifts of this sort could be written without disguise.
Was the 'grace' the same thing as the 'glory' for the early Christians? Just look again at the material at the end of John chapter 1. Jesus is a spiritual being (= glory) who 'was given' to the author of the Pauline epistles who was 'full of grace' = 'the Word who was made flesh and who glory we beheld; and His glory was as that of the Only-begotten given to Him by the Father, full of grace and truth.'

And then the next question - what was the apostle building from his reception of the glory? The gospel. If you look at the structure of the material (and especially the last line 'it was impossible that gifts could be written (τῶν χαρισμάτων ἐπιστέλλειν) without disguise (ἀποκεκαλυμμένως).' He is referencing the concept of the 'secret' gospel.
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Old 01-26-2013, 01:06 AM   #6
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'The word was made flesh' could mean today's 'He's the real deal' meaning authentic at whatever someone does.

Word made flesh...He was accepted as an authentic prophet. .

Word made flesh...the fulfillment of the biblical prophesy?

Word made flesh..an awesome dude?

The body as a temporal dwelling of a human spirit would not have been original would it? Buddhism and reincarnation of a human spirt or essense predated Christianity.

Are yiu looking to find Jesus or soemthing like that?
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Old 01-26-2013, 01:08 AM   #7
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FWIW the concept of the 'secret gospel' from another text of Clement related directly to the same word found here

Quote:
But when Peter died a martyr, Mark came over to Alexandria, bringing both his own notes and those of Peter, from which he transferred to his former book the things suitable to whatever makes for progress toward knowledge. Thus he composed a more spiritual Gospel for the use of those who were being perfected. Nevertheless, he yet did not divulge the things not to be uttered, nor did he write down the hierophantic teaching of the Lord, but to the stories already written he added yet others and, moreover, brought in certain sayings of which he knew the interpretation would, as a mystagogue, lead the hearers into the innermost sanctuary of that truth hidden by seven veils (Ἔτι προσεπήγαγε λόγιά τινα ὧν ἠπίστατο τὴν ἐξήγησιν μυσταγωγήσειν τοὺς ἀκροατὰς εἰς τὸ ἄδυτον τῆς ἑπτάκις κεκαλυμμένης ἀληθείας).
The gospel is here understood to be composed by Peter who acts as building the foundation before Mark came to add 'spiritual' things to it. In the Stromata, Clement cites 'Paul' as saying that he was the 'wise builder' before "another buildeth on it gold and silver, precious stones." The idea of there being two related gospels - one associated with Peter and another usually identified as being associated with Paul - is found in Tertullian and other sources. My guess is that Peter and Paul were really one and the same figure = Simon, and Mark built on that originally built on the oral teachings (= viva voce) associated with his master.
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Old 01-26-2013, 01:15 AM   #8
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You are derailing your own OP. Are you just looking to pontificate?
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Old 01-26-2013, 01:32 AM   #9
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No this is my effort to derail my own thread.

Christianity is like an undiscovered continent. The defenders and the haters fight over what Christianity became. But there is this whole massive civilization which has yet to be realized. We're all fighting over this 'central thesis' which is in fact a false premise - the historical man named Jesus. The historical Jesus was a name, the same name which changed Oshea into Jesus. The gospel narrative is a variation on that theme. This also explains why the baptism which turned another in to Jesus took place on the land beyond the Jordan. It's an echo of the material in the Pentateuch and the Book of Joshua.
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Old 01-26-2013, 01:40 AM   #10
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Quote:
Originally Posted by stephan huller View Post
No this is my effort to derail my own thread.

Christianity is like an undiscovered continent. The defenders and the haters fight over what Christianity became. But there is this whole massive civilization which has yet to be realized. We're all fighting over this 'central thesis' which is in fact a false premise - the historical man named Jesus. The historical Jesus was a name, the same name which changed Oshea into Jesus. The gospel narrative is a variation on that theme. This also explains why the baptism which turned another in to Jesus took place on the land beyond the Jordan. It's an echo of the material in the Pentateuch and the Book of Joshua.
op Why Does It Have to Be 'Either Or' In the Mythicist Debates.

My guess from your threads is you are doing the stream of consiousness exercise. whatever flows into the consious mind comes to paper with no defined bounds. One flowesf rom one idae to the next as they come.
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