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Old 01-13-2004, 10:15 PM   #1
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Default Flipping Layman's F. Fs : Earl Doherty's use of the Epistle to the Hebrews

This post is a brief examination of Layman's article, Earl Doherty's use of the Epistle to the Hebrews.

General comment

By far, this is Layman's worst article in his Contra Doherty corpus. It is poorly written and is riddled with spelling mistakes and grammatical errors from the first line and is almost incoherent in some sections - even where Layman can be thought to be making a good argument.
He still uses falsified and hyperbolic statements like "...radically late dating of the Gospels and Act" [sic], contradicts himself and sidetracks often.

I will examine it section by section and will attempt to focus on the main arguments. I will structure this post in the same manner Layman structures his article for easy comparison.

The Worldview of the Author of Hebrews

A On Plato Philo and Judaism

Layman "agrees that there was Platonic influence on the author of Hebrews" but states that Doherty overestimates it. Then Layman says that Doherty "tends to ignore and explain away many references in Hebrews which affirm other, Jewish influences which stress the linear thought of Jewish eschatology and Jewish messianic expectations".
Then Layman, without touching Doherty's arguments even slightly, quotes N. T. Wright, Graham Hughes and Luke T. Johnson, who state their observations concerning the manner that Platonism is "reworked" in Hebrews, the way it is "spun" etc. Layman goes further to explain that "The author of Hebrews recounts example after example from the Old Testament to demonstrate the power of faith. Abraham, Isaac, Jacob, Joseph, Moses, Noah, Enoch, and Rahab are all historical examples of God's intervention in earthly affairs. Moreover, he places them in a horizontal, eschatological framework".

This is a claim Layman never demonstrates. In any case, is a "horizontal, eschatological framework" a worldview (in the sense of cosmogony)?
Layman attempts to equivocate and hopes the user doesnt notice the shift in argument. He equivocates cosmogonical order (vertical) with historical order (horizontal). This is fallacious as the latter is not a worldview and thus cant be equated as a "spin" on the platonic framework.

Layman goes on to explain the distinction between an allegorical approach and symbolical/typological one. This section is done well and he brings out the meanings of the two terms very clearly. Then he proceeds to compare Philo and the author of Hebrews. Except, Layman chooses to sell what other authors have written on Philo and doesn't mention Doherty's arguments concerning Philo who Doherty mentions in pages 78, 81, 89, 134, 137, 203, 204. Layman's tactic of parading the opinions of scholars while at the same time muzzling Doherty's take on the same, is simply a smokescreen and what he attempts to achieve is hoodwink readers so that they don't see what Doherty states on the matter. He instead advertises what other scholars state.
He has, at this stage, aborted his mission, which is to criticize Doherty's work. He is indulging his readers with irrelevant material.

His conclusion comes as no suprise: "In summary, although the view that the author of Hebrews writes from a strongly Platonic perspective used to hold much sway in the academic community, more thorough and recent scholarship has rightly rejected this notion. There are simply too many important differences."

It does not matter that scholarship has rejected "this notion" and have different ideas. What matters is whether Doherty's arguments are false or right. Because Layman doesn't confront them, we may never know from his article. Layman's use of the word, "recent", while fallacious (appeal to novelty), is not supported in his article.
Having "simply too many important differences" does not explain to us whether or not "the author of Hebrews writes from a strongly Platonic perspective". Thats a red herring and doesn't address the arguments advanced by Doherty.

In addition, has "simply too many important differences" to what - Philo? So if there are "simply too many important similarities" between Philo's writings and Hebrews, then we can say that "the author of Hebrews writes from a strongly Platonic perspective"?

Is that Layman's argument?

B. The Essenes and the Author of Hebrews

Layman begins : "Another potential influence on Hebrews that Doherty ignores is that of Essene thought" He continues "Both there and here, we find a New Covenant community, separation from cult with appropriation of its symbols, the expectation of a priestly as well as kingly messiah, even an interest in the figure of Melchizedek." Johnson, op. cit. page 420).

Doherty doesn't ignore the Essene thought. Doherty expounds on the Essene thought when he explains the riotous diversity from which Christianity evolved. He explores the Essene thought when he examines the Odes of Solomon and "the Son" that the Qumran Essenes, through the Dead Sea Scrolls (p. 133) held as a source of wisdom and salvation. Melchizedek is handled by Doherty (p. 62) and how the author of Hebrews compares him to Jesus.

Thus Layman's claim that Doherty "ignores" Essene thought is erroneous.

Layman concludes this section as follows "These similarities shows that Doherty has ignored or downplayed a promising source of ideas for Hebrews. Why? Apparently so he can cram all of Hebrews' main ideas into his Platonic box. "

Thus we see his objective: to impute motive to his false claims on Doherty's omissions while not addressiong Doherty's arguments.

The Human Jesus

B. A Flesh and Blood Messiah

Layman quotes Hebrews 2:14-18: "Therefore, since the children share in flesh and blood, He Himself likewise also partook of the same, that through death He might render powerless him who had the power of death, that is, the devil. For assuredly He does not give help to angels, but He gives help to the descendant of Abraham. Therefore, He had to be made like His brethren in all things, so that He might become a merciful and faithful high priest in things pertaining to God, to make propitiation for the sins of the people. For since He Himself was tempted in that which He has suffered, He is able to come to the aid of those who are tempted."

Then he concludes: "On the surface, the reference to Jesus and his "flesh and blood" would seem clearly to be a reference to Jesus as a human being."

This is false in view of Doherty's sublunar incarnation theory. Since Layman quotes Carrier, I shall do the same. Carrier states:

"...his theory is entirely compatible with Jesus "becoming a man of flesh and blood," that is, in the sublunar sphere of heaven, since, as Doherty explains several times, he had to in order to die and fulfill the law (only flesh can die, and be subject to the law, and blood was necessary for atonement).

The actual phrase used, kata sarka, is indeed odd if it is supposed to emphasize an earthly sojourn. The preposition kata with the accusative literally means "down" or "down to" and implies motion, usually over or through its object, hence it literally reads "down through flesh" or "down to flesh" or even "towards flesh." It very frequently, by extension, means "at" or "in the region of," and this is how Doherty reads it. It only takes on the sense "in accordance with" in reference to fitness or conformity (via using kata as "down to" a purpose rather than a place), and thus can also mean "by flesh," "for flesh," "concerning flesh," or "in conformity with flesh." I have only seen it mean "according to" when followed by a cited author (e.g. "according to Euripedes," i.e. "down through, or in the region of Euripedes"), so it is unconventional to translate it as most Bibles do (a point against the usual reading and in favor of Doherty's). Even the "usual reading" is barely intelligible in the orthodox sense, especially since on that theory we should expect en sarki instead. The word kata can also have a comparative meaning, "corresponding with, after the fashion of," in other words "like flesh." In short, all of the common meanings of kata with the accusative support Doherty's reading: Jesus descended to and took on the likeness of flesh. It does not entail that he walked the earth. It could allow that, but many other strange details noted by Doherty are used to argue otherwise. At any rate, he makes a pretty good case for his reading, based on far more than this.

It came to my mind as I went along that Doherty's thesis resembles what we know of ancient Sumerian worship of Ishtar, better known in the Bible as Astarte, Ashtoreth, or Ashera, which had evolved by Jesus' day into the goddess Cybele. Though the texts are over a thousand years prior to the dawn of Christianity, the tradition remained in some form throughout the Ancient Near East, and extant then or not it remains relevant as a "proof of concept." In Sumerian tablets, we learn that the goddess Inanna descended from Heaven, past earth, down into Hell, crossing seven gates there (Samuel Kramer, History Begins at Sumer: Thirty-Nine Firsts in Man's Recorded History, rev. ed., 1981: cf. p. 162). Eventually she is killed by a demon in Hell: "The sick woman was turned into a corpse. The corpse was hung from a nail. After three days and three nights had passed," her vizier petitions the gods in heaven to resurrect her. Her Father gives her the "food of life" and the "water of life" and resurrects her, then she ascends back to heaven, sending another God (her lover) to die in her place: "the shepherd Dumuzi" (aka Tammuz, a forerunner of Attis). Doherty argues that Christianity began with a story like this: where all the action takes place in realms beyond earth. Ishtar still had flesh and could be killed, even crucified, and resurrected, then ascend back to heaven, but she was never "on earth." There is a lot more to Doherty's theory than that, of course. I offer this analogy only to show that such an understanding of a dying and rising God actually was, and thus could be held by ancient peoples who were among the ideological ancestors of the Christians.

A contemporary analogy is Plutarch's "higher" reading of the Isis-Osiris myth (On Isis and Osiris, composed between the 80's and 100's, the very same time as the Gospels), where he says, using the vocabulary of mystery religion, that the secret truth held by priests is that Osiris is not really under the earth, but is:

Far removed from the earth, uncontaminated and unpolluted and pure from all matter that is subject to destruction and death...[where] he becomes the leader and king [of the souls of the dead and where] Isis pursues and is enamored and consorts with Beauty, filling our earth here with all things fair and good that partake of generation (382e-383a). ... For that part of the world which undergoes reproduction and destruction is contained underneath the orb of the moon, and all things in that are subjected to motion and to change (376d).

It is there, in the "outermost areas" (the "outermost part of matter"), that evil has particular dominion, and where Osiris is continually dismembered and reassembled (375a-b). As Plutarch puts it, "the soul of Osiris is everlasting and imperishable, but Typhon oftentimes dismembers his body and causes it to disappear, and Isis wanders hither and yon in her search for it, and fits it together again" since his body is perishable and thus "driven hither from the upper reaches" (373a-b). In effect, Osiris is "incarnated" in the sublunar heaven and actually dies and resurrects there, later ascending beyond to the imperishable heavens (see also my essay " Osiris and Pagan Resurrection Myths: Assessing the Till-McFall Exchange "). Plato, says Plutarch, "calls this class of beings an interpretive and ministering class, midway between gods and men, in that they convey thither the prayers and petitions of men" (361c) and Isis and Osiris were such, but were later exalted into the heavens as full gods (361e). There are many resemblances here with Doherty's reconstructed Pauline Christology, and it is such schemes as this that prove his theory fits the ancient milieu well."

Layman cites Carrier as follows: "Richard Carrier, while discussing Doherty's similar attempts to explain away references to Jesus being "born of a woman" or "descended from David" takes notice of Doherty's failure to provide any examples of such usage" then Layman proceeds to cite Carriers criticism of Doherty's handling of Gal. 4:4.

Its wrong for Layman to import criticisms on Doherty's take on Galatians while he (Layman) is discussing Doherty's take on Hebrews. It basically means that Layman can find no criticism of Doherty's handling of Hebrews and thats why he cites criticisms on Doherty's handling of Galatians. This is a classic case of poisoning the well: a shoddy approach to argumentation.

Members of the jury, please ignore any criticisms directed at Galatians as we are handling Hebrews. Counselor, please stick to evidence thats relevant to Hebrews. and don't waste this court's time.

C. A Little Lower than the Angels

Layman's disagreement with Doherty that the phrase "a little lower than the angels" in (Hebrews 2:5-8) means "a lower celestial realm" is inconsistent with Layman's own admission that "there was Platonic influence on the author of Hebrews".

Carrier explains the sublunar incarnation theory above very clearly. There is nothing more to add to an explanation so clear.
OTOH, Layman could also help readers understand exactly how "there was Platonic influence on the author of Hebrews"?

D. Descended from Judah

Here, Layman attacks a strawman by stating "Nothing about the term prodelon implies that Jesus being descended from Judah is known only from scripture" since Doherty doesn't argue that prodelon means "Jesus being descended from Judah is known only from scripture"
Secondly, Layman disagrees with Doherty over the contextual meaning of the word prodelon. Layman cannot read Greek. And where he can, he is not competent to deal with exegesis of Greek texts. Doherty is the very opposite of that. Layman cites no Greek scholar to support his interpretation. Thus he has no basis for his disagreement and is not competent to argue over semantics with a private scholar who deals with ancient Greek texts "directly" (Carrier says Doherty "...deals with ancient texts directly and competently"). Carrier, an expert in ancient history and Greek, often credits Doherty for having a better interpretation of certain Greek words than biblical commentators. Often. Kata sarka being one of them. This points to Doherty's competence.

It follows that if the author of Hebrews got the story of Jesus from scriptures, he did not get it from a historical source, thus the story is not historical even if the author wants it to be historical. The source determines the historicity of a story: not the storytellers sentiments regarding the story.

Layman's argument, that "Even if it is true that the author of Hebrews got many of his ideas from the OT, nothing about that fact suggests that the author did not believe it to be historically true" is a red herring because it addresses the belief of the author of Hebrews not the source of his 'gospel' - which is what is at issue.

Layman includes a quote from G.A. Wells who talks of Doherty's stance on other issues not directly related to "descended from Judah", but who also talks of what other people believed. One cannot argue against the fact that if there was a historical Jesus, there would have been no need to resort to the OT for a story about his life and teachings.

E. The Garden of Gethsemene?

This section regards Hebrews 5:7-8, which is similar to the "flesh and blood" section above in some respects.

Layman asks "Do we have examples of divine beings going into the "lower celestial regions" and praying to God in the upper celestial regions? As discussed, above--and noted by Carrier--Doherty offers us no evidence that this kind of language was used, especially by Jews, to describe God's action in a "lower" celestial region."

Clearly, he is ignorant, or pretends to be ignorant, or expects his readers to be ignorant of Carrier's explanations as I have quoted him above. I refer Layman to it to answer his question and also to correct him regarding Carrier's take on the matter.

F. The Incarnation

This regards Hebrews 1:6: "And again, when he bringeth in the firstbegotten into the world...."

Layman states : "Although the term "firstbegotten" need not imply a physical birth, the reference to bringing Jesus "into the world" is a clear reference to the incarnation. Doherty no doubt would argue that this need not mean that Jesus came "into the world," but into a "lower celestial realm."

Doherty "would argue"? What is this - a prophecy?

Anyway, this does not need further attention because by Layman's own admission, "the term "firstbegotten" need not imply a physical birth"

G. Taking on Humanity

This regards Hebrews 4:15: "For we have not a high priest which cannot be touched with the feeling of our infirmities; but was in all points tempted like as [we are, yet] without sin."

Layman states "Doherty does not spend any time on this scripture, but it is similar to the statement that Jesus became "in all things" like a human being. The idea that Jesus had to become human to save humans is strongly reinforced by this passage."

I refer readers to the section titled "A Flesh and Blood Messiah" above and Doherty's handling of Hebrews 13:11-14.

H. Jesus Executed Outside the Gate

This regards Hebrews 13:11-14 "For the bodies of those animals whose blood is brought into the holy place by the high priest as an offering for sin, are burned outside the camp. Therefore Jesus also, that He might sanctify the people through His own blood, suffered outside the gate. So, let us go out to Him outside the camp, bearing His reproach. For here we do not have a lasting city, but we are seeking the city which is to come."

Layman states : "The thrust of Doherty's argument is that Hebrew's reference to Jesus' suffering "outside the gate" is not based on any historical tradition, but is entirely created from the author's imagining of Hebrew scripture. However, as the discussion below demonstrates, the author is not creating accounts from scripture, but attempting to make existing historical traditions fit, often in a rather forced way, existing Hebrew scripture."

He cites Doherty thus: "The first thing to note is that the name of Jerusalem is not used. Only the Gospel story would lead us to identify the author's thought about a gate with that city. Nor does the name of Calvary or Golgotha ever appear. "

To which Layman responds: "The idea that the lack of a references to "Jerusalem," "Calvary" and/or "Golgotha" has any relevance to the issue of whether the author of Hebrews is referring to earthly events or historical tradition is demonstrably false. Example after example of later Christian writings which even Doherty admits refer to an earthly Jesus discuss Jesus' death, crucifixion, or passion without ever mentioning "Jerusalem," Calvary" and/or "Golgotha." I will discuss some notable examples:"

Then Layman cites some second century documents mostly from the Ignatian corpus, The Octavius of Minucius Felix (160 - 250 CE), A Letter of Mara, Son of Serapion (73 - 200 CE), The Epistle of Barnabas (80 - 120 CE).

Specifically:
Layman writes:

Quote:
Ignatius' Letter to the Ephesians (105 - 115 CE)

This letter mentions the cross twice, Jesus' death four times, and includes this explicit reference: "If, then, those who do this as respects the flesh have suffered death, how much more shall this be the case with any one who corrupts by wicked doctrine the faith of God, for which Jesus Christ was crucified!". Ch. 16. Nevertheless, there is no mention of Jerusalem, Golgotha, or Calvary.
Ignatius' Letter to the Magnesians (105 - 115 CE)

This letter refers to Jesus' passion twice, as well as his resurrection and crucifixion. Nevertheless, there is no mention of Jerusalem, Golgotha, or Calvary.
Ignatius' Letter to the Trallians (105 - 115 CE)

This letter refers to Jesus' death and his passion. Nevertheless, there is no mention of Jerusalem, Golgotha, or Calvary.
Ignatius' Letter to the Romans (105 - 115 CE)

This letter compares Ignatius' own upcoming martyrdom to that of Jesus. "Permit me to be an imitator of the passion of my God." Yet there is no mention of Jerusalem, Golgotha, or Calvary.
Ignatius' Letter to the Philadelphians (105 - 115 CE)

This letters discusses Jesus' "cross, and death, and resurrection" and his "passion." Yet there is no mention of Jerusalem, Golgotha, or Calvary.
Ignatius' Letter to the Smyrnaeans (105 - 115 CE)

This letter discusses Jesus' "passion" on several occasions. He is very explicit about Jesus' human death: "in the name of Jesus Christ, and in His flesh and blood, in His passion and resurrection, both corporeal and spiritual." Yet there is no reference to Jerusalem, Golgotha, or Calvary.
Doherty clearly mentions that Ignatius mentions Pontius Pilate and Mary the mother of Jesus. The idea that each writer MUST " reference to Jerusalem, Golgotha, or Calvary" is a strawman on Laymans part. Mention of historical places and clear refecences to historical people suffice as evidence that a writer is referring to a historical person.

Quote:
Polycarp's Letter to the Phillipians (110 - 140 CE)

This letter discusses the cross and Jesus' "suffering unto death." Yet there is no mention of Jerusalem, Golgotha, or Calvary.
Martyrdom on Polycarp (150 - 160 CE)

This letter mentions Jesus' death by crucifixion without mentioning Jerusalem, Golgotha, or Calvary.
Polycarp was a friend of Ignatius. Whats remarkable about his beliefs of an earthly Jesus is that they are not drawn from an apostolic tradition or any written Gospel. Its likely he was drawing his beliefs about Jesus from the oral traditions that were circulating at the time.

Quote:
The Octavius of Minucius Felix (160 - 250 CE)

This treatise discusses very specifically Jesus' death on a cross. Indeed, the author devotes a chapter to defending Jesus' innocence of the crime for which he was crucified. Nevertheless, there is no mention of Jerusalem, Golgotha, or Calvary.
Its unlikely that Minucius 'bought' the stories of a flesh and blood of Jesus were circulating at the time given the tirade he levelled at those speculating thate Jesus was a man and his cynical attitute towards the idea of worshipping a dead man.

Quote:
The Epistle of Barnabas (80 - 120 CE)

Although Barnabas is obsessed with the cross referring to it and discussing it over and over again there is no mention of Jerusalem, Golgotha, or Calvary.
Barnabas does not draw his story of Jesus from any apostolic tradition or from the Gospels. He draws from Isaiah 50 and 53, and Psalms 22 and 119.

Now, what we see above are apologists who believed in a fleshly Jesus but who never relied on an apostolic tradition or on the Gospels as we know them. This fits comfortably in the Jesus myth Hypothesis.

Then Layman concludes: "Obviously, therefore, the fact that the author of Hebrews mentions Jesus' crucifixion without specifically mentioning Jerusalem, Golgotha, and/or Calvary, does not tend to show that the author was ignorant of such traditions. It only shows that the author did not see fit to include them in the particular letter before us."

I will ignore Layman's remarkable ability to read the minds of dead authors and his ability to explain why they omit certain information from their works.
My question to Layman is, when was Hebrews written? and when he quotes the predominantly second century documents, Is he aware that the second piece of the Jesus Puzzle states that : "There is no non-Christian record of Jesus before the Second Century"?

Does Layman understand how the above apologists fit in the wider context of the Jesus myth argument?

"Outside the gate", and "outside the city" is an argument Doherty has handled very well. I wouldn't want to dilute it. The readers will have to decide whether Layman's arguments qualify as a rebuttal. Whats important is that Layman seems to misunderstand what an analogy is, what an "exact analogy" is and what "the same thing" means.
In any event, the scholars Layman cites state that, going by Layman's preferred interpretation, find "historical tradition being "forced" to fit into the sacrificial system of Leviticus 16", "parallel seems inexact, since the animals of the sin offering were actually slaughtered within the camp." F.F. Bruce.
By Layman's own admission, "It's not a perfect fit by any means". But Doherty's parallel dovetails perfectly.

There is nothing more to add.


Conclusion

I think Layman wrote the article in a hurry. If he is putting up an article on a website, basic standards like grammar and spelling, at the very least, should be observed. If I were Doherty, and I read such a poorly-written article, I wouldn't respond to it either because the writing is not focused and doesn't address the arguments he (Doherty) has spent decades building. Instead, it refers to anemic, old school arguments made by scholars who presume the existence of a HJ and who bring in their knowledge of the Gospel Jesus into their interpretation of texts: people who basically need reschooling first before they can look at texts without blinders.

Layman doesn't understand the thrust of Doherty's wider argument and wastes time by quoting authors Doherty disagrees with. What this achieves is show that other people hold a different view without offering the readers an adequate explanation as to why and whether Doherty's arguments are false. It renders a number of Layman's arguments "ad infinitum" arguments. Layman cites Carrier selectively, even when his citation is irrelevant. This further shows Layman is not disciplined in his efforts to criticize Doherty and is ready to stoop low, so long as he can move ahead and throw an objection.

PS:

I may not be able to examine Layman's other articles in the next five weeks. My Lecturers are back from their 2 months strike over pay (lowest paid lecturers in Africa - ponder the implications of that) and I have to go and read Markov Analysis and Bayes Theorem. I will have exams in a few weeks time.

But I shall respond at least twice to this thread.
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Old 01-14-2004, 01:06 AM   #2
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Quote:
By far, this is Layman's worst article in his Contra Doherty corpus. It is poorly written and is riddled with spelling mistakes and grammatical errors from the first line and is almost incoherent in some sections - even where Layman can be thought to be making a good argument.
He still uses falsified and hyperbolic statements like "...radically late dating of the Gospels and Act" [sic], contradicts himself and sidetracks often.
You cannot change the fact that Doherty latches on to every radical theory to support his radically late dating of Acts and the Gospels. Most notably his reliance on the refuted ideas of John Knox and Vernon K. Robbins to eliminate Acts as a source of history about the early Church.

Quote:
A On Plato Philo and Judaism

Layman "agrees that there was Platonic influence on the author of Hebrews" but states that Doherty overestimates it. Then Layman says that Doherty "tends to ignore and explain away many references in Hebrews which affirm other, Jewish influences which stress the linear thought of Jewish eschatology and Jewish messianic expectations".
Then Layman, without touching Doherty's arguments even slightly,
Since Doherty barely makes any such arguments here, there was not much to touch. Like I said, Doherty tries to cram everything into his Platonic framework without discussing the other options.

Quote:
quotes N. T. Wright, Graham Hughes and Luke T. Johnson, who state their observations concerning the manner that Platonism is "reworked" in Hebrews, the way it is "spun" etc. Layman goes further to explain that "The author of Hebrews recounts example after example from the Old Testament to demonstrate the power of faith. Abraham, Isaac, Jacob, Joseph, Moses, Noah, Enoch, and Rahab are all historical examples of God's intervention in earthly affairs. Moreover, he places them in a horizontal, eschatological framework".

This is a claim Layman never demonstrates.
Actually, yes I do. You mistake your ability to ignore my arguments with the existence of those arguments.

Quote:
Doherty places much emphasis on the influence of Platonic thought on Hebrews. According to Doherty, "there can be no denying that Hebrews' thought world is fundamentally Platonic. This is a divided, dualistic universe of realms heavenly and earthly, genuine and imitation." Although I agree that there was Platonic influence on the author of Hebrews, Doherty greatly overestimates it. Moreover, he tends to ignore and explain away many references in Hebrews which affirm other, Jewish influences which stress the linear thought of Jewish eschatology and Jewish messianic expectations. Those Jewish ideas stressed God's direct intervention in human affairs. "YHWH, as the creator and covenant God, was irrevocably committed to further action of some sort in history...." (N. T. Wright, The New Testament and the People of God, page 247). Along these lines, Jewish messianic expectations centred around a human messiah--not a purely mythological saviour active only in the "lower celestial realm." The Epistle to the Hebrews affirms and reinforces these beliefs, but with its own spin.

For comparative purposes, a useful way to describe Platonic thought is that it is vertical. The imperfect on earth is but a shadow of the perfection in the heavens. The relationship is vertical and static. Jewish belief, however, though containing its own vertical relationship between God's actions in heaven and effects on earth, stresses a horizontal perspective. The world--even the heavens--is not static, it is moving forward according to God's plans to a final reconciliation of heaven and earth. In Hebrews there is undoubtedly some Platonic influence; at least in language. However, it is subordinated to the horizontal Jewish perspective stressing God's intervention in earthly affairs. To the great detriment of a dispassionate understanding of Hebrews, Doherty chooses to view Hebrews only through a Platonic lens.

Indeed, the first passage in Hebrews demonstrates the fallacy of cramming Hebrews into a Platonic box. It stresses both Jesus' role as a human agent of God and a decidedly non-Platonic worldview:

Hebrews 1:1-2: "God, after He spoke long ago to the fathers in the prophets in many portions and in many ways, in these last days has spoken to us in His Son, whom He appointed heir of all things, through whom also He made the world."

Jesus' actions take place not in a static, murky realm, but in a set place in history. While actions in the platonic heavenly realm are timeless and static, Jesus did not speak as God's son until "these last days." Additionally, Jesus' role as God's spokesperson is compared to the flesh and blood prophets of the Jewish forefathers "long ago." Hebrews uses the same terms to describe the actions of the prophets "long ago" and Jesus "in these last days." There is a definite parallel being drawn between God speaking through his earthly prophets and God speaking through his earthly Son. "Each of the main phrases in the first verse (of old, to our fathers, by the prophets) is matched by a corresponding, and to some extent contrasting phrase in the second (in these last days, to us, by a Son)." (R. McL. Wilson, The New Century Bible Commentary: Hebrews, page 30). This is far from platonic.

"Whatever uses will be made of the 'Platonic' category of ideas later in the letter, we must see with complete clarity that here in the opening statement the relationship between the two forms of revelation--the imperfect and perfect--is given not as between an imperfect human or earthly form and a spiritual and heavenly form, but as earlier and later forms. The disclosure of the Word of God takes its shape as a history, a history which has a past and a present (and, indeed, a future)."

(Graham Hughes, Hebrews and Hermeneutics, page 36).

As Luke T. Johnson puts it:

"Platonism is ... entirely reworked by Hebrews. First, Hebrews shows a very acute awareness of history: God spoke of old, and speaks now, but differently. The past also serves as a type or example for the present, which is "greater" and "more real" (see 4:11). Second, the distinction between heaven and earth is not only cosmological, it is also existential. "Heaven" describes God's existence and all that can participate in it, whereas 'earth' denotes merely human existence. Third, Hebrews exalts rather than denigrates the physical. Only because Jesus was and had a body could he be a priest. His body, furthermore, is not cast off at death but exalted. Fourth, Hebrews emphasizes change: Christ came once and will come again; he was, for a little while, lower than the angels but is now exalted and enthroned. Platonism is here stretched and reshaped around belief in a historical human saviour whose death and resurrection made both his body and time axiologically rich."

(Luke T. Johnson, The Writings of the New Testament, page 422).

This distinction between a Platonic approach and the author of Hebrews is highlighted by his use of the Old Testament. For example, Philo--perhaps the most Platonic of Jewish thinkers and a common example cited by Doherty--used the Old Testament in a fundamentally different way than the author of Hebrews. "Philo does not treat the Old Testament history as history, but as a framework for his philosophical ideas. But for the writer to the Hebrews the history is treated literally, as the catalogue in chapter 11 shows." (Donald Guthrie, New Testament Introduction, page 707). Hebrews 11 is the so called "Hall of Faith." The author of Hebrews recounts example after example from the Old Testament to demonstrate the power of faith. Abraham, Isaac, Jacob, Joseph, Moses, Noah, Enoch, and Rahab are all historical examples of God's intervention in earthly affairs. Moreover, he places them in a horizontal, eschatological framework: "And all these, having gained approval through their faith, did not receive what was promised, because God had provided something better for us, so that apart from us they would not be made perfect." Hebrews 11:39-40. According to Ronald Williamson, "In the use of the Old Testament made by the two writers is striking and fundamental differences appear.... On such fundamental subject as time, history, eschatology, the nature of the physical world, etc., the thoughts of Philo and the writer of Hebrews are poles apart." (Ronald Williamson Philo and the Epistle to the Hebrews, page 38).

Another way to describe the difference between Philo's platonic approach to the New Testament and that of the author of Hebrews, is the difference between allegory and symbolism/typology. According to Alexander Nairne, "Philo deals with allegories, the Epistle with symbols [or typology]." (Alexander Nairne The Epistle of Priesthood, page 37). An allegorical approach is "the search for a secondary and hidden meaning underlying the primary and obvious meaning of a narrative." (KJ Woolcombe, 'The Biblical Origins and Patristic Development of Typology' Essays on Typology, page 40). Symbolism and typology, on the other hand, emphasizes "linkages between events, persons, or things within the historical framework of revelation." (ibid.). Philo employed the former, the author of Hebrews the latter. As a result, "we must make a rigorous distinction between such a typology--which is historical symbolism--and the kind of allegorism practiced by Philo and adopted by certain Fathers of the Church. For the latter is really a reappearance of a cosmic symbolism without an historical basis." (Jean Danielou 'The New Testament and the Theology of History' Studia Evangelica I ed. K. Aland, page 30).
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In any case, is a "horizontal, eschatological framework" a worldview (in the sense of cosmogony)?
Layman attempts to equivocate and hopes the user doesnt notice the shift in argument. He equivocates cosmogonical order (vertical) with historical order (horizontal). This is fallacious as the latter is not a worldview and thus cant be equated as a "spin" on the platonic framework.
What are you talking about? The Jewish view of history moving towards God's grand moment is not a world view? Of course it is. How is that inconsistent with also believing that there exists a heavenly realm of God and other spiritual beings and their activities?

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Layman goes on to explain the distinction between an allegorical approach and symbolical/typological one. This section is done well and he brings out the meanings of the two terms very clearly. Then he proceeds to compare Philo and the author of Hebrews. Except, Layman chooses to sell what other authors have written on Philo and doesn't mention Doherty's arguments concerning Philo who Doherty mentions in pages 78, 81, 89, 134, 137, 203, 204. Layman's tactic of parading the opinions of scholars while at the same time muzzling Doherty's take on the same, is simply a smokescreen and what he attempts to achieve is hoodwink readers so that they don't see what Doherty states on the matter. He instead advertises what other scholars state.
He has, at this stage, aborted his mission, which is to criticize Doherty's work. He is indulging his readers with irrelevant material.
Nice spin. But still not a defense of defending Doherty's cramming everything in sight into a Platonic framework.

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His conclusion comes as no suprise: "In summary, although the view that the author of Hebrews writes from a strongly Platonic perspective used to hold much sway in the academic community, more thorough and recent scholarship has rightly rejected this notion. There are simply too many important differences."

It does not matter that scholarship has rejected "this notion" and have different ideas. What matters is whether Doherty's arguments are false or right. Because Layman doesn't confront them, we may never know from his article. Layman's use of the word, "recent", while fallacious (appeal to novelty), is not supported in his article.

Having "simply too many important differences" does not explain to us whether or not "the author of Hebrews writes from a strongly Platonic perspective". Thats a red herring and doesn't address the arguments advanced by Doherty.
More baseless characterizations. Do you care to explain why Doherty concludes there is no typology? Why the references to a Priestly Messiah are not a product of Essene influence? Or the references to Melch? Just what are Doherty's arguments for ignoring these?

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In addition, has "simply too many important differences" to what - Philo? So if there are "simply too many important similarities" between Philo's writings and Hebrews, then we can say that "the author of Hebrews writes from a strongly Platonic perspective"?

Is that Layman's argument?
Doherty's only real attempt to link Hebrews to Platonic thought is by his comparison to Philo, who is the most prominent Jewish writer who incorporated Platonic into his Jewish worldview.

The author of Hebrews writes in terms not of a static universe of perfect and imperfect/perfect forms, but in Jewish terms of before and after as God moves history towards his own purposes. He develops this idea by using Jewish typology to compare Jesus to the prophets of old. To inspire the modern church in its faith by those who have gone before.

Also, you use your usual disdain for scholarly opinion as an excuse to ignore the arguments of those scholars. I do not provide string cites, but quote full arguments from the scholars you are so dismissive of.

In short, you have refuted nothing and failed to defend (or even explain) any portion of Doherty's argument.

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B. The Essenes and the Author of Hebrews

Layman begins : "Another potential influence on Hebrews that Doherty ignores is that of Essene thought" He continues "Both there and here, we find a New Covenant community, separation from cult with appropriation of its symbols, the expectation of a priestly as well as kingly messiah, even an interest in the figure of Melchizedek." Johnson, op. cit. page 420).

Doherty doesn't ignore the Essene thought. Doherty expounds on the Essene thought when he explains the riotous diversity from which Christianity evolved. He explores the Essene thought when he examines the Odes of Solomon and "the Son" that the Qumran Essenes, through the Dead Sea Scrolls (p. 133) held as a source of wisdom and salvation. Melchizedek is handled by Doherty (p. 62) and how the author of Hebrews compares him to Jesus.

Thus Layman's claim that Doherty "ignores" Essene thought is erroneous.

Layman concludes this section as follows "These similarities shows that Doherty has ignored or downplayed a promising source of ideas for Hebrews. Why? Apparently so he can cram all of Hebrews' main ideas into his Platonic box. "

Thus we see his objective: to impute motive to his false claims on Doherty's omissions while not addressing Doherty's arguments.
Spare me the red herrings. You will look in vain for any mention of the Essenes in Doherty's online article on Hebrews. As for his book, your references are completely irrelevant. Doherty does not mention the Epistle to the Hebrews on page 133 and does not mention the Essenes on page 62. In fact, you have completely failed to give me any reference indicating Doherty spared a second in considering Essenic influence on the Epistle to the Hebrews. Especially regarding the parallels I address in my article.

So what have you shown here? Only your ability to find yet another baseless excuse to ignore yet another argument harmful to Doherty's theory.

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Another potential influence on Hebrews that Doherty ignores is that of Essene thought. Indeed, the more we have learned from the Dead Sea Scrolls the more it appears that the author of Hebrews had as much, if not more, in common with the Essenes than with Plato and Philo. There are many similarities between Hebrews and the Qumrun community. "Both there and here, we find a New Covenant community, separation from cult with appropriation of its symbols, the expectation of a priestly as well as kingly messiah, even an interest in the figure of Melchizedek." Johnson, op. cit. page 420). Indeed, two of the most striking and unique similarities go to the heart of two of Doherty's points.

First, both the author of Hebrews and the Dead Sea Scrolls associate the Messiah with a priestly office. The idea that Jesus the Messiah held a priestly office in Hebrews is foundational to the letter's entire argument. Indeed, although the author acknowledges Messiahship along Davidic lines, it has little place for him. Jesus' priestly role or the activities of priests are referred to 27 times in Hebrews. David is mentioned only twice. Obviously, Jesus the Messiah as High Priest overshadows Jesus the Messiah as King. So too with much of the Dead Sea perspective. Many of the Dead Sea Scrolls speak of a priestly Messiah "of the house of Aaron." 1QS 9:11 speaks of "the Messiahs of Aaron and Israel." The title "the Messiah of Aaron and Israel" is used three times in the Damascus Document: CD 12:23-13:1; 14:19; 19:10-11. CD 20:1 speaks of "a Messiah from Aaron and from Israel." There has been some dispute about whether the Dead Sea Scrolls envisions one Messiah combining priestly and kingly attributes, or two separate messiahs with their respective roles. More recent scholarship has moved towards the two messiah perspective, though some still dissent. In any event, what is important is that it was the priestly messiah (or priestly attributes of the one messiah) that was more important figure. According to John P. Meier, "the priestly Messiah clearly takes precedence over the royal Messiah." (John P Meier, A Marginal Jew, Vol. III, page 495). See also The Rules of the Congregation, 1QSa 2:12-21. The congruence is actually remarkable. I am not aware of any other Jewish sect of the time that associated the Messiah so strongly with priestly attributes as the author of Hebrews and the Dead Sea Scrolls.

Second, the interest in Melchizedek in Hebrews and the Dead Sea Scrolls is similar. Hebrews refers to Melchizedek, and comparing Jesus to him, no less than eight times. The Dead Sea Scrolls also places Melchizedek in an important role in their community. Indeed, much like Jesus, he is depicted as a heavenly figure who at one time resided on earth. In The Coming of Melchizedek, 11Q13, he is depicted as an agent of jubilee salvation who will preside over the final judgment. The similarities with Jesus and with the emphasis on Melchizedek is unique among Jewish literature. Later rabbinic material largely ignores him, with some negative treatment in Nedarim 32b and Sanhedrin 108b.

These similarities shows that Doherty has ignored or downplayed a promising source of ideas for Hebrews. Why? Apparently so he can cram all of Hebrews' main ideas into his Platonic box. But it does not fit. Indeed, the evidence of similarities with Essene ideas reinforces the Jewishness of the letter. It also reinforces Jesus' actual humanity.
Several of the elements in Hebrews Doherty insists indicate Platonic thought can more easily be attributed to Jewish ideas related to the Essenes. This is most true of the idea of the Messiah as High Priest. As far as I have learned, no other Jewish group expected a Priestly Messiah, much less insisted that the priestly attributes of the Messiah were more important than the Davidic/Kingly attributes. Furthermore, the mutual interest and portrayal of Melch. is remarkably similar. Why is this important?

Because the Essenes were not Middle Platonists. They expected the Priestly Messiah to come to earth and live as a human being. Just as the author of Hebrews spoke of Jesus as a Priestly Messiah who came to earth and lived as a human being.

Because though they thought of Melch. as spiritual figure, they also believed he had come to earth and lived as a human being. Just as the author of Hebrews spoke of Jesus as a spiritual figure who came to earth and lived as a human being.

No, Doherty spends no time addressing these correlations. That he mentions the Essenes 100 pages later in his book is irrelevant.

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The Human Jesus

B. A Flesh and Blood Messiah

Layman quotes Hebrews 2:14-18: "Therefore, since the children share in flesh and blood, He Himself likewise also partook of the same, that through death He might render powerless him who had the power of death, that is, the devil. For assuredly He does not give help to angels, but He gives help to the descendant of Abraham. Therefore, He had to be made like His brethren in all things, so that He might become a merciful and faithful high priest in things pertaining to God, to make propitiation for the sins of the people. For since He Himself was tempted in that which He has suffered, He is able to come to the aid of those who are tempted."

Then he concludes: "On the surface, the reference to Jesus and his "flesh and blood" would seem clearly to be a reference to Jesus as a human being."

This is false in view of Doherty's sublunar incarnation theory.
Since we have no reason to attribute sublunar incarnation theory to the author of Hebrews, this counter argument fails.

Furthermore, Doherty and you simply ignore the fact that we know what "flesh and blood" means. It does not mean a sublunar realm. It is a Jewish idiom for a human being:

Doherty is being very inventive here, but he ignores the well-established meaning of having "flesh" or "flesh and blood." "The phrase flesh and blood is a common expression for human nature. The rabbis use it chiefly where the corruptible nature of man is compared with the eternity and omnipotence of God, but the usage is older than the rabbinic literature and the idea of mortality and creature lines seems to be bound up with it from the outset." Wilson, op. cit. page 60). His decision to ignore the established meaning of the terms for his "lower celestial realm" argument is also unpersuasive because he fails to provide relevant examples. In other words, where is the evidence that people during the first century, especially Jews, spoke of purely spiritual beings who had never been to earth as having such attributes as "flesh and blood"?

So contra Doherty, Carrier, and you, the phrase "flesh and blood" is an idiom that stresses true humanity. Neither Doherty, Carrier, or you can provide a single example of the use of this phrase in any fashion even remotely approximating Doherty's construction of it.

If you have any such examples, please provide them. Truly.

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Since Layman quotes Carrier, I shall do the same. Carrier states:

"...his theory is entirely compatible with Jesus "becoming a man of flesh and blood," that is, in the sublunar sphere of heaven, since, as Doherty explains several times, he had to in order to die and fulfill the law (only flesh can die, and be subject to the law, and blood was necessary for atonement).

The actual phrase used, kata sarka, is indeed odd if it is supposed to emphasize an earthly sojourn....

Layman cites Carrier as follows: "Richard Carrier, while discussing Doherty's similar attempts to explain away references to Jesus being "born of a woman" or "descended from David" takes notice of Doherty's failure to provide any examples of such usage" then Layman proceeds to cite Carriers criticism of Doherty's handling of Gal. 4:4.

Its wrong for Layman to import criticisms on Doherty's take on Galatians while he (Layman) is discussing Doherty's take on Hebrews. It basically means that Layman can find no criticism of Doherty's handling of Hebrews and thats why he cites criticisms on Doherty's handling of Galatians. This is a classic case of poisoning the well: a shoddy approach to argumentation.

Members of the jury, please ignore any criticisms directed at Galatians as we are handling Hebrews. Counselor, please stick to evidence thats relevant to Hebrews. and don't waste this court's time.
Jacob. Carrier is talking about Paul's use of "according to the flesh," not the Jewish idiom "flesh and blood." Do you think it is fair to attack me for noting that Carrier takes Doherty to task for failing to offer relevant examples to back up his theory while you cite Carrier's discussion of the phrase "according to the flesh" used by Paul? There is nothing bizarre about the idiom "flesh and blood." It means human being.

In any event, I have utterly refuted Doherty's rendering of "according to the flesh," Carrier's examples notwithstanding. I did so by examining how Paul uses the same phrase elsewhere in his writings, something Carrier simply ignores.

http://www.bede.org.uk/price7.htm

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Doherty's attempt to interpret "born of a descendent of David according to the flesh" to mean that Jesus was never born but was instead a purely spiritual figure who never came to earth is unavailing. He completely fails to offer any comparable pagan savior parallels that were so described. In fact, his own example contradicts his theory because it involves a being who lived on earth and had a biological mother. It is much more reasonable to understand this verse in light of its plain meaning and its Jewish background--Paul thought Jesus was born of a descendent of David and this marked him as qualified to be the Messiah. But even less persuasive is Doherty's attempt to equate "according to the flesh" with the demon realm of the lower celestial realm. Neither of the authorities he cites supports his interpretation. In fact, they directly contradict it. Moreover, the most important evidence of all--Paul's own writings--reveals that Doherty's interpretation is unreasonable and unsupported. Accordingly, Romans 1:3-4 stands as a clear reference by Paul to the human life of Jesus.
And you completely ignored yet another argument against Doherty's rendering of this passage that is quite powerful:

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Indeed, the text plainly states that a purely spiritual saviour could not be an adequate high priest. Jesus literally had to "take hold" of human form to bring salvation to humans.

Take hold (epilambanomai) does not mean 'take on the nature of' as in the King James Version, but 'to take hold in order to help.' The word was used of Jesus when he 'caught' Peter as he began to sink while attempting to walk on the water (Matt. 14:31), when He 'took' the blind man by the hand in order to heal him (Mark 8:23), and when He 'took' the man with dropsy so as to heal him (Luke 14:4). This also provides a better understanding in the present passage, since to translate as 'took on the nature of' would be a repetition of verse 14. The point here is that Christ became a man, even to the point of suffering and death, because it was men, not angels, whom he planned to save.
(Homer A. Kent, Epistle to the Hebrews, page 60)

The author actually goes out of his way to distinguish Jesus' "partaking" from a purely spiritual endeavour by clarifying that "he does not give help to angels" but to the "descendants of Abraham." So he had to be "like" the humans, not the angels, "in all things." The use of "like" here is much the same as how the author of Acts uses the term at Act 14:11, "When the crowds saw what Paul had done, they raised their voice, saying in the Lycaonian language, 'The gods have become like men and have come down to us.'" To make sure there was no doubt what he meant, the author of Hebrews further clarifies that Jesus became "like" human beings "in all things."
Perhaps I should have spelled the passage out. Right after saying that Jesus became flesh and blood like us, he notes that "[f]or assuredly He does not give help to angels, but He gives help to the descendant of Abraham." Heb. 2:16. Here, the author of Hebrews clarifies that Jesus was NOT a spirit like the angels, but a human being like other human beings. The author of Hebrews is explicitly denying Doherty's spin on this verse.

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C. A Little Lower than the Angels

Layman's disagreement with Doherty that the phrase "a little lower than the angels" in (Hebrews 2:5-8) means "a lower celestial realm" is inconsistent with Layman's own admission that "there was Platonic influence on the author of Hebrews".

Carrier explains the sublunar incarnation theory above very clearly. There is nothing more to add to an explanation so clear.
Once again you find excuses to avoid my argument, rather than respond to it.

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But Doherty strives to interpret this phrase as meaning something other than Jesus becoming human. To Doherty, being "lower than the angels" means "the lower celestial realm." However, Doherty is clearly wrong because the Old Testament passage being quoted here uses the phrase "a little lower than the angels" to describe mankind, not the lower celestial realm. I was actually surprised that Doherty fails to deal with the clear meaning of the Old Testament passage because the author of Hebrews quotes the relevant passage in its entirety:

For He did not subject to angels the world to come, concerning which we are speaking. But one has testified somewhere, saying, "What is man that You take thought of him, and the son of man that You care for him? Yet You have made him a little lower than the angels, and You crown him with glory and majesty! You make him to rule over the works of Your hands; You have put all things under his feet.
(Hebrews 2:5-8)

"Hebrews 2:5-8a is thus a recitation of Psalm 8:5-7 (LXX), which in its original context speaks with awe and wonder at God's care for humanity and the great honour God has bestowed on human beings, entrusting them with the care of creation. " (David A. DeSilva, Perseverance in Gratitude, page 109). Being a "little lower than the angels" is not a reference to a place--such as the "lower celestial realm"--but describes a specific creature with a specific place in God's plans--human beings. The "Son of Man" is a human being. He is a "little lower than the angels." Indeed, it can be paraphrased as "But we do see Him who God made a human, namely, Jesus, because of the suffering of death crowned with glory and honour, so that by the grace of God He might taste death for everyone. "
The evidence is clear that Doherty's attempt to interpret "lower" as a level of heaven below the angels unfounded. The evidence is clearly otherwise. Hebrews refers to the LXX Psalm 8:5-7 here. That Psalm does not use "a little lower than the angels" to mean a level of heaven, but to mean a man. The "Son of Man" to be precise. I find it hard to believe that in all those commentaries that he obviously read, that Doherty missed this use of scripture. It is inconsistent with his fanciful interpretation. The author of Hebrews is declaring that Jesus became a human being, not that he visited a particular sub-heavenly realm.

You also ignored this:

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Additionally, the passage plainly states that Jesus actually died. Not that his death was symbolic or merely representative. The term "taste"--geuomai--here is stronger than it sounds in English. "Taste was a common metaphor which meant 'to experience.' It did not suggest a mere sip or sampling, but the full experience of eating." (Homer A. Kent, op. cit., page 54). The implication here is that Jesus did not just "sip" or "sample" death, or something like it, he actually experienced it. Which is exactly how the term is used elsewhere in the New Testament. (see Matthew 16:28, Mark 9:1, Luke 9:27, John 8:52).
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D. Descended from Judah

Here, Layman attacks a strawman by stating "Nothing about the term prodelon implies that Jesus being descended from Judah is known only from scripture" since Doherty doesn't argue that prodelon means "Jesus being descended from Judah is known only from scripture"
Secondly, Layman disagrees with Doherty over the contextual meaning of the word prodelon. Layman cannot read Greek. And where he can, he is not competent to deal with exegesis of Greek texts. Doherty is the very opposite of that. Layman cites no Greek scholar to support his interpretation. Thus he has no basis for his disagreement and is not competent to argue over semantics with a private scholar who deals with ancient Greek texts "directly" (Carrier says Doherty "...deals with ancient texts directly and competently"). Carrier, an expert in ancient history and Greek, often credits Doherty for having a better interpretation of certain Greek words than biblical commentators. Often. Kata sarka being one of them. This points to Doherty's competence.
Actually, Doherty and Carrier's approachs to kata saka are seriously flawed. Their failure to examine Paul's other uses of the phrase is inexplicable. If this is a sampling of their expertise then I lack confidence. Though I do not doubt that Carrier knows plenty more about Greek than I do, he did not show it in this analysis. Nor am I sure he could be called an "expert."

But I did not disagree with Doherty's translation of this word. I adopted it ("clear, manifest"). Thayer's Lexicon describes it as "openly evident, known to all, manifest." Joseph Thayer, Thayer's Greek English Lexicon, page 538. I paraphrased by noting that this is similar to saying "everybody knows." The point is simply that there is nothing about the term being used that suggests Doherty's mythical reading of it.

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It follows that if the author of Hebrews got the story of Jesus from scriptures, he did not get it from a historical source, thus the story is not historical even if the author wants it to be historical. The source determines the historicity of a story: not the storytellers sentiments regarding the story.
True, if you assume that the author of Hebrews got the story of Jesus from scripture, he did not get it from a historical source. Which means if you assume you are right you will conclude you were right.

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Layman's argument, that "Even if it is true that the author of Hebrews got many of his ideas from the OT, nothing about that fact suggests that the author did not believe it to be historically true" is a red herring because it addresses the belief of the author of Hebrews not the source of his 'gospel' - which is what is at issue.
Actually, the belief of the author is a core part of Doherty's theory. He does not just say the author of Hebrews was mistaken about their being a historical Jesus, he cites Hebrews as evidence that the early Christians -- the author included -- believed only in a spiritual Jesus. If the author of Hebrews believed in a historical Jesus, but added details about him from the OT, Doherty's theory is refuted--though some other Jesus Myther will no doubt carry on in some other argument.

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Layman includes a quote from G.A. Wells who talks of Doherty's stance on other issues not directly related to "descended from Judah", but who also talks of what other people believed. One cannot argue against the fact that if there was a historical Jesus, there would have been no need to resort to the OT for a story about his life and teachings.
Wells is making the point I mentioned above. And as I understand Wells, he's retreated from the idea that there was NO Jesus figure behind the traditions. In any event, Wells point is that even if the author of Hebrews got many or most of his ideas about Jesus from the OT, this does not mean that he believed Jesus was a spiritual entity. This is inconsistent with Doherty's theory.

You also ignored this argument:

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Finally, it makes more sense for the author to refer to the tribe Jesus was from because the issue is "how can Jesus be a Priest if he's from the wrong tribe." The mosaic law makes no mention of King David and discusses such matters in terms of tribal ancestry. Only Levites could be priests. Indeed, the fact that the author sees this as a problem at all suggests that he is referring to actual, historical facts. If Jesus was not a historical figure but merely had the attributes described in OT scripture, there would be no issue. In other words, if the author and audience knew that Jesus never was actually born of any tribe but is merely described as representing or possessing certain attributes, there would be no difficulty. But there is a problem. Jesus was born into the wrong tribe to be a Priest. He is from Judah, not Levi. The author, therefore, has to explain how Jesus can be a Priest despite his lineage. The author does not treat the issue as "how can a spiritual figure have messianic and priestly attributes." Far from it, the issue is "how can Jesus be a priest if he was born into the tribe of Judah." Thus, this scripture strongly attests Jesus' tribal ancestry in an early and convincing manner.
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E. The Garden of Gethsemene?

This section regards Hebrews 5:7-8, which is similar to the "flesh and blood" section above in some respects.

Layman asks "Do we have examples of divine beings going into the "lower celestial regions" and praying to God in the upper celestial regions? As discussed, above--and noted by Carrier--Doherty offers us no evidence that this kind of language was used, especially by Jews, to describe God's action in a "lower" celestial region."

Clearly, he is ignorant, or pretends to be ignorant, or expects his readers to be ignorant of Carrier's explanations as I have quoted him above. I refer Layman to it to answer his question and also to correct him regarding Carrier's take on the matter.
And as I indicated above, Carrier's explanation of kata sakra is untenable. And once again, that is not the phrase that is used here. Hebrews does not say "according to the flesh" but "in the days of his flesh." He then goes on to describe an event that sounds very much like something that happened on earth. Neither you, nor Doherty, nor Carrier have provided any examples of such language being used to describe a purely spiritual being in a lower heavenly realm.

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F. The Incarnation

This regards Hebrews 1:6: "And again, when he bringeth in the firstbegotten into the world...."

Layman states : "Although the term "firstbegotten" need not imply a physical birth, the reference to bringing Jesus "into the world" is a clear reference to the incarnation. Doherty no doubt would argue that this need not mean that Jesus came "into the world," but into a "lower celestial realm."

Doherty "would argue"? What is this - a prophecy?
What are his options? Of course he would do so.

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Anyway, this does not need further attention because by Layman's own admission, "the term "firstbegotten" need not imply a physical birth"
You missed the point. I focused not on that term--I agree it's insufficient--but on the phrase saying that Jesus was brought "into the world." Firstbegotten is just another title for Jesus, the action here is on where Jesus was brought. As I argued:

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The choice of terms here to describe "the world" is significant. Other terms translated as "world" have subtle but important differences. Aion means "Age," as in "the age to come." Ge means "Earth," as in soil, land, or the planet Earth. Kosmos has a variety of meanings, including "universe," the "ungodly multitude," and the "circle of earth." Ktisis means "creation." (The Dictionary of Paul and His Letters, page 979-982; The Dictionary of Jesus and the Gospels, page 886-90; Thayer's Greek-English Lexicon). The term chosen by the author of Hebrews, however, is oiloumene. This term refers to the world inhabited by humanity, sometimes to the Roman Empire. Thayer's translates the term "the inhabited earth." (ibid. page 440. The Dictionary of Jesus and the Gospels translates it "the inhabited world." (ibid. page 889. And, the New Testament overwhelmingly uses the phrase oikoumene to refer to the world inhabited by humankind. (Matthew24:14, Luke 2:1, Luke 4:5, Acts 11:28, Acts 17:6, Acts 17:31, Acts 19:27, Acts 24:5, Romans 10:18, Hebrews 1:6, Revelation 3:10, Revelation 12:9, Revelation 16:14, Luke 21:26). So too Josephus (Antiquities 8.13.4). Accordingly, by choosing the term referring to the "inhabited world" the author indicates that Jesus appeared on earth in physical form, not in the demon realm of the "lower celestial world." Doherty offers no evidence that the phrase "world" here can, or more importantly, should be translated as his theory demands.
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G. Taking on Humanity

This regards Hebrews 4:15: "For we have not a high priest which cannot be touched with the feeling of our infirmities; but was in all points tempted like as [we are, yet] without sin."

Layman states "Doherty does not spend any time on this scripture, but it is similar to the statement that Jesus became "in all things" like a human being. The idea that Jesus had to become human to save humans is strongly reinforced by this passage."

I refer readers to the section titled "A Flesh and Blood Messiah" above and Doherty's handling of Hebrews 13:11-14.
So do I. And my responses.

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Doherty clearly mentions that Ignatius mentions Pontius Pilate and Mary the mother of Jesus. The idea that each writer MUST " reference to Jerusalem, Golgotha, or Calvary" is a strawman on Laymans part. Mention of historical places and clear refecences to historical people suffice as evidence that a writer is referring to a historical person.
You missed the point. I am refuting Doherty's argument that the author of Hebrew's failure to mention Jerusalem, Golgotha or Calvary indicates that he did not write about a historical Jesus. Hence his argument that: "The first thing to note is that the name of Jerusalem is not used. Only the Gospel story would lead us to identify the author's thought about a gate with that city. Nor does the name of Calvary or Golgotha ever appear."

By pointing to later Christian writers who Doherty agrees did believe in a historical Jesus also wrote about Jesus' Passion without mentioning the same specifics that are "missing" from Hebrews, I refuted this notion. It is irrelevant whether they got their traditions from an apostolic one or not, all that matters for the purpose of this argument is that they show how easily Christians could write about the Passion, believe in a historical Jesus, but not always mention Jerusalem, Golgotha, or Calvary.

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"Outside the gate", and "outside the city" is an argument Doherty has handled very well. I wouldn't want to dilute it. The readers will have to decide whether Layman's arguments qualify as a rebuttal. Whats important is that Layman seems to misunderstand what an analogy is, what an "exact analogy" is and what "the same thing" means.
In any event, the scholars Layman cites state that, going by Layman's preferred interpretation, find "historical tradition being "forced" to fit into the sacrificial system of Leviticus 16", "parallel seems inexact, since the animals of the sin offering were actually slaughtered within the camp." F.F. Bruce.
By Layman's own admission, "It's not a perfect fit by any means". But Doherty's parallel dovetails perfectly.
Once again you come up with excuses to avoid the arguments you cannot respond to directly.

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Doherty's claim that Jesus undergoes the "same thing" and is merely a "copy" of what happens to animal sacrifices in the Temple Cult as stated by Hebrew scripture is clearly erroneous. The differences are obvious and significant.

First, there author changes his terminology. In Leviticus, after the sacrifice, the carcass of the animal is "taken outside the camp." Leviticus 16:27. Once there, the carcass is burned. Leviticus 16:28. The author of Hebrews faithfully reproduces the text in Hebrews v. 11, noting that the animal is burned "outside the camp." When speaking of Jesus, however, the author of Hebrews does not say that Jesus suffered "outside the camp." The author conspicuously avoids using the same terminology found in Hebrew scripture and instead uses different phrases. Rather than being "burned," Jesus "suffers." And, even more significantly, rather than suffering "outside the camp," Jesus suffers "outside the gate."

Doherty offers no explanation for the shift in terminology. It is clearly incompatible with his claim that Jesus is merely the "same thing" or a "copy" that is based on Hebrew scripture. So, if Doherty's interpretation fails to explain the change in terms, what does? The explanation is obvious. The author of Hebrews is not creating myth from Hebrew scripture, he is adapting scripture to fit into historical tradition. And, frankly, his attempt is somewhat forced because of the differences between the historical tradition he is working with and Hebrew scripture.

The historical tradition that is being "forced" to fit into the sacrificial system of Leviticus 16 is that Jesus was executed outside the city. That is why the author refers to "gate" instead of "camp." In fact, according to Thayer's Lexicon, the Greek term that the author of Hebrews uses for "gate", pule generally means "a gate of a larger sort", such as to a city, town, or large structure. The same term is used elsewhere in the New Testament to refer to a gate to a city or town (Acts 3:10; 9:24: 12:10; Luke 7:12).

But is there any indication that such a historical tradition even existed about the location of Jesus' death? Yes. Three of the four gospels confirm that Jesus died outside the city.

Matthew27:32 33: "As they were coming out, they found a man of Cyrene named Simon, whom they pressed into service to bear His cross. And when they came to a place called Golgotha, which means Place of a Skull...."
Mark 15:20: "After they had mocked Him, they took the purple robe off Him and put His own garments on Him. And they led Him out to crucify Him."
John 19:20: "Therefore many of the Jews read this inscription, for the place where Jesus was crucified was near the city; and it was written in Hebrew, Latin and in Greek."
Jerusalem, as a walled city, was exited by use of one of the many gates to the city. Accordingly, the best explanation for the shift from "camp" to "gate" is that the author of Hebrews was attempting to fit an existing historical tradition into an analogy with the sacrificial system described in Leviticus.

Second, there are other substantial differences between the animal sacrifices in Leviticus and the sacrifice of Jesus. The location and sequence of events is different. Very different. In the Temple Cult, the animal was taken into the camp, and killed therein. (Lev. 16). The blood was then used to make the appropriate sacrifices. Only after the sacrifice was complete was the animal's body removed from the Temple and taken outside the camp to be burned. Not so with Jesus. Jesus' suffering, a reference to his crucifixion, occurred outside of the gate. Only after he died on the cross (Hebrews 6:6; 12:2), did Jesus enter the temple. The sequence and location of events is actually the opposite of the Levitical system. If Jesus was simply a model of the Hebrew scripture's system of sacrifice, he would have died/suffered inside the camp (as the animal does), not outside the gate (as the Gospels indicate). Obviously, the author is struggling to fit an existing tradition into existing scripture. And, frankly, it is something of a stretch given the differences highlighted.

Two commentators on Hebrews explain it as follows:

The fact that the bodies of the animals sacrificed on the Day of Atonement were burned outside the camp suggests a parallel to the fact that Jesus was crucified outside one of the city gates of Jerusalem [cf. John 19:2]. The parallel may seem inexact, since the animals of the sin offering were actually slaughtered within the camp.
(FF Bruce, op. cit. page 380)

The analogy was not meant to be pressed, and that may be why the author used the word suffered (epathen) rather than 'died." The Old Testament sin offering was actually slain within the tabernacle precincts, and only after its blood was sprinkled on the altar was the carcass carried outside the camp for burning. In the case of Jesus, of course, His death occurred outside the city. The main point in view is the disgrace involved.

Homer A. Kent, op. cit. page 285)

Clearly, therefore, the most reasonable understanding of the differences between what the author of Hebrews says about Jesus' death on a cross outside the gate before the offering and the Levitical system's sacrifice within the camp and burning outside of it, is that the author of Hebrews is trying to fit what he knows about the historical facts of Jesus' death into Hebrew scripture. It's not a perfect fit by any means, but he uses it to make his point. He obviously did not create the accounts of Jesus to be the "same thing" or a "copy" of the scriptures.

Doherty continues:

In any case, we have strong indication from an earlier passage (7:1 3) that the writer of Hebrews possesses no concept of Jesus ever having been in or near Jerusalem. Jesus in his role as heavenly High Priest finds his archetype, his scriptural precedent, in Melchizedek. This figure was "king of Salem and priest of God Most High," who is mentioned briefly in Genesis 14:18 20. (There is an even briefer reference to him in Psalm 110:4.) In comparing Melchizedek to Jesus, the writer is anxious to milk everything he can from this shadowy character; one who serves the role of prototype for Jesus the new High Priest. And yet he fails to make the obvious point that Melchizedek had officiated in the same city where Jesus later performed his own act as High Priest, the sacrifice of himself. This is only one of many unthinkable omissions in this epistle.
First, the reference to Melchizedek, along with other features about Hebrews, actually points away from a heavy reliance on Platonic thought here. The figure of Melchizedek is obviously considered to be historical, and hints at Qumran influence and their belief in an earthly Messiah.

The symbolism of Hebrews is complex, deriving from a variety of traditions. The search for a perfect correspondence between one tradition and this writing is futile, for Hebrews reshapes the available symbols around the figure of a crucified and exalted Messiah. A discussion of the symbolic framework is valuable only insofar as it helps us understand that new shaping. It has recently been argued, for example, that Hebrews most resembles the thought world of the Qumran sectarians. Both there and here, we find a New Covenant community, separation from cult with appropriation of its symbols, the expectation of a priestly as well as kingly messiah, even an interest in the figure of Melchizedek.
(Luke T. Johnson, op. cit. page 420)

Second, there is there no "unthinkable omission." Jesus did not "officiate" as high priest in Jerusalem. Rather, Christ officiates as high priest from heaven. Jesus simply suffered and died near Jerusalem, he presented himself as a high priest and the offering in heaven. The author, if anything, wants to de emphasize any connection between Jesus' movement and the Temple Cult of Jerusalem.

In sum, Hebrews 13:11 - 13 most likely refers to a historical tradition recounting how Jesus was crucified outside the city as recorded in three of the Gospels.
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There is nothing more to add.
Perhaps you missed the "Next Page" icon? There is much more on the other side of it. Here is a direct link:

http://www.bede.org.uk/price2.htm
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