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Old 05-19-2001, 01:57 PM   #1
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Question virgin birth supported in the OT?

I ran across this:

http://www.christian-thinktank.com/fabprof2.html

and, as I'm not particularly well versed in these matters, I was wondering how truthful it is.

More precisely, are the definitions it gives of almah and bethulah correct?
 
Old 05-19-2001, 03:20 PM   #2
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All the examples they give for claiming betula can mean non-virgin show nothing of the sort:

Ezek 23:3: the two women were virgins and lost their virginities in Egypt. "The breasts of their virginity" means "their breasts while they were virgins".

Joel 1:8: Hebrew ba'al means "husband"; whether the husband has committed intercourse is not stated. Specifically, ba'al n'ureha (the husband of her youth) means "the one who was wedded/betrothed to her in youth".

Esther 2:17: the Persian king simply took a virgin every night and devirginized her. It was a common oriental palace custom, as also told in the Arabian Nights.
 
Old 05-20-2001, 03:30 PM   #3
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"Esther 2:17: the Persian king simply took a virgin every night and devirginized her. It was a common oriental palace custom, as also told in the Arabian Nights."

Our pal Gilgamesh gets credit for starting the custom of going on the honeymoon with the bride & groom and getting first dibs on the bride!
 
Old 05-21-2001, 11:42 AM   #4
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Wink

Thanks for your help, guys. Better to check that it is nonsense before I confidently claim so, though, isn't it?!
 
 

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