stephan huller

:hysterical:

Is that the name you give to those who accept reality?

:hysterical:

I guess the 'wide and diverse early Christianity hypothesis' is up there with the 'world is round hypothesis' or the 'what goes up must come down hypothesis' or the 'don't use toilet paper get stinky bum bum hypothesis.'

Toto

What is there to explain? Why is this "negative evidence?"

mountainman

Assuming the origins of the Greek NT canonical and non canonical books was early 2nd century, the consistent use of nomina sacra has to span two centuries without variance. How was this practice universally standardised not only with orthodox, but heretical authors?

Universal standardisation of the major nomina sacra is not commensurate with the large geographical expanse and the so-called wide Christian diversity. For example why did not any of the heretic authors or any of the orthodox authors ever write "God" or "Lord" or "Jesus" or "Christ/Chrest" in the explicit form in a two hundred year period of utter literary bickering and diversity?

I would like to see a coherent explanation for the almost universal use of these "nomina sacra" over two centuries given the context of (so-called) widespread literary and geographical diversity.