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Old 08-05-2013, 01:15 PM   #51
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....He follows a crucified man who lived, who died for our sins as a voluntary sacrifice, who was from the seed of David.

While I will agree no direct statement is made, he recounts the story of Jesus' death and resurrection.
It is SPECIFICALLY stated by the Jesus cult that Jesus had NO human father.

Please get acquainted with the story of Jesus attributed to the Jesus CULT.

Tertullian's "On the Flesh of Christ" 18
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Now, that we may give a simpler answer, it was not fit that the Son of God should be born of a human father's seed, lest, if He were wholly the Son of a man, He should fail to be also the Son of God..........As, then, before His birth of the virgin, He was able to have God for His Father without a human mother, so likewise, after He was born of the virgin, He was able to have a woman for His mother without a human father....
The Quest for an HJ will always end in a disaster--No such character ever existed in the history of mankind.

It was made public in the Roman Empire since the 2nd century that Jesus was born after his mother was made pregnant by a Ghost.
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Old 08-05-2013, 03:56 PM   #52
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In gMark, Jesus is charged with blasphemy


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Pilate doesn't convict Jesus of anything.
Mark says that Pilate's specific charge against Jesus was claiming to be the King of the Jews (15:26). That's why it was written on his titilus.
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Old 08-05-2013, 07:56 PM   #53
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In gMark, Jesus is charged with blasphemy


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Pilate doesn't convict Jesus of anything.
Mark says that Pilate's specific charge against Jesus was claiming to be the King of the Jews (15:26). That's why it was written on his titilus.
Your statement is a most blatant fallacy. Mark 15.26 does not state anywhere that Pilate charged Jesus.

It is Mark 15.9-10 which states that the Jews delivered up Jesus because of ENVY. It is clear that in gMark that Pilate referring to Jesus as King of the Jews was willing to release him.

Mark 15
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9 But Pilate answered them, saying , Will ye that I release unto you the King of the Jews? 10 For he knew that the chief priests had delivered him for envy
It most disturbing when people present known blatant fallacies.

After Pilate refers to Jesus as the King of the Jews he will then ask the Jews, What Evil has he done?"

Mark 15
Quote:
12 And Pilate answered and said again unto them, What will ye then that I shall do unto him whom ye call the King of the Jews? 13 And they cried out again, Crucify him. 14 Then Pilate said unto them, Why, what evil hath he done ?
In gMark, Pilate did NOT charge the Jesus character at all. Pilate had no idea that Jesus had done anything wrong.
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Old 08-05-2013, 08:18 PM   #54
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Your statement is a most blatant fallacy. Mark 15.26 does not state anywhere that Pilate charged Jesus.
Mark 15:26
καὶ ἦν ἡ ἐπιγραφὴ τῆς αἰτίας αὐτοῦ ἐπιγεγραμμένη ὁ βασιλεὺς τῶν Ἰουδαίων

"And the inscription of his accusation was written : the King of the Jews"

The placards on crosses always said what the victim had been convicted of. Only Pilate could have convicted him of the crime of claiming to be the King of the Jews because that was not a Jewish crime.
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Old 08-05-2013, 09:15 PM   #55
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Your statement is a most blatant fallacy. Mark 15.26 does not state anywhere that Pilate charged Jesus.
Mark 15:26
καὶ ἦν ἡ ἐπιγραφὴ τῆς αἰτίας αὐτοῦ ἐπιγεγραμμένη ὁ βασιλεὺς τῶν Ἰουδαίων

"And the inscription of his accusation was written : the King of the Jews"

The placards on crosses always said what the victim had been convicted of. Only Pilate could have convicted him of the crime of claiming to be the King of the Jews because that was not a Jewish crime.
What absurdity you post. In gMark Pilate did NOT convict Jesus of anything--Pilate was willing to RELEASE Jesus.

It was NOT Pilate that made that accusation in Mark 15.26. You are obviously reading things into Mark 15.26.

Mark 15 DIRECTLY states that it was the Jews who made Accusations and charges against Jesus--NOT Pilate.

[u]Mark 15
Quote:
2 Pilate questioned Him, "Are You the King of the Jews ?" And He answered him, "It is as you say." 3 The chief priests began to accuse Him harshly. 4 Then Pilate questioned Him again, saying, "Do You not answer ? See how many charges they bring against You!"
The Jews accused Jesus of calling himself the King of the Jews but Pilate found he did nothing wrong and claimed the Jews brought him because they were ENVIOUS of Jesus.

Mark 15:9-10 NAS
Quote:
9 Pilate answered them, saying, "Do you want me to release for you the King of the Jews ?"For he was aware that the chief priests had handed Him over because of envy.
Please, read gMark 15 before making fallacious claims which cannot be found in the Gospel.
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Old 08-13-2013, 07:29 AM   #56
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Originally Posted by Grog View Post
In gMark, Jesus is charged with blasphemy
Quote:
Pilate doesn't convict Jesus of anything.
Mark says that Pilate's specific charge against Jesus was claiming to be the King of the Jews (15:26). That's why it was written on his titilus.
I think Grog is right. Mark says that the titulus of Jesus' "crime he was accused of" was "King of the Jews". There is nothing about any claim Jesus made. Mark is being ironic - Jesus claims to be the Messiah of Paul (14:62, compare 1 Th 4:16-17), not the Davidic Messiah the traditional Jews (including his disciples) expect. Pilate believes it is folly to crucify Jesus and thus fulfils Paul's saying that the crucified Messiah is a stumbling block (skandalon) to the Jews and folly to the Gentiles. In Mark's tale the prefect simply gives in to the scandalized Jews.

Best,
Jiri
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Old 08-13-2013, 12:07 PM   #57
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Can you explain why? The author of the article you linked to referred to the use of the term "brothers of the Lord' and "brother of the Lord." You can find several threads on this board about Paul's use of term "the Lord" and what it might mean here. I find these explanations, far from "explaining away," to be convincing for the most part. Far less convincing to me is historicist attempts to explain Paul's lack of any reference to details about a recently deceased Jesus. Including, by the way, no mention of his crucifixion at the hands of the Romans.

I'm not sure you have studied the arguments enough to make a determination but are, instead, coming at the topic from a preconceived standpoint.




Why do you think this would help him?

In your first response you made this assertion:



I am not sure this is justified. Certainly, the historicist case also depends on interpolation, forgery, and and the NT cannot be a source. Historicist Jesus historiography depends on stripping falsities away from a hypothesized true core. And, in fact, "forgery" in the New Testament is well-recognized in the scholarly community (e.g., pseudoepigraphical epistles).

So, given that state of affairs, can you point to a case of interpolation held by so-called "mythicists" that is not also questioned by so-called "experts?"

You found those explanations compelling. I don't. There is no real reason to make the difference between Cephas and James, inventing some 'brothers of the lord' which have James but not Peter and other so called explanations just don't work. Your problem is that many experts in the field do not buy this either.
What would be a "real reason" that you accept? Isn't that just code for you don't want to "buy" this argument? You will find some of the arguments you are raising addressed here as red herrings, in an excellent on site blog by spin.

Quote:
As for the other problem well there may be questions about the authenticity of what Paul says, or Josephus, and so on. But usually there is strong consensus that Galatians is pauline (some even deny this), that the passage where Paul say that Jesus was born of a woman is Pauline,
I have shown many examples in pre-Christian and non-Christian literature where clearly spiritual entities are said to be "born of a woman." In fact, Paul, himself, refers later in Galatians 4 to "allegorical" births:

Galatians 4:23 But one, the son by the slave woman, was born by natural descent, while the other, the son by the free woman, was born through the promise. 24 These things may be treated as an allegory, for these women represent two covenants.

In the Apocalypse of Adam, the Illuminator is described thusly:

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Originally Posted by apocadam
Then the god of the powers will be disturbed, saying, "What is the power of this man who is higher than we?" Then he will arouse a great wrath against that man. And the glory will withdraw and dwell in holy houses which it has chosen for itself. And the powers will not see it with their eyes, nor will they see the illuminator either. Then they will punish the flesh of the man upon whom the holy spirit came.
The Illuminator was born of a virgin:

Quote:
Originally Posted by apocadam
The fourth kingdom says of him that he came from a virgin. [...] Solomon sought her, he and Phersalo and Sauel and his armies, which had been sent out. Solomon himself sent his army of demons to seek out the virgin. And they did not find the one whom they sought, but the virgin who was given them. It was she whom they fetched. Solomon took her. The virgin became pregnant and gave birth to the child there. She nourished him on a border of the desert. When he had been nourished, he received glory and power from the seed from which he was begotten. And thus he came to the water.
Isn't it gratuitous to insist that you are correct on this point when faced with evidence that contemporaneous writings reference spiritual entities also being born of a woman? Especially in light of Paul's own reference to other supposed births as allegories? There is nothing in Galatians 4:4 that demands we accept the term "born of a woman" as referring to a recently existing human being who preached and was crucified by the Romans.



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Originally Posted by metacristi
that the passage where Josephus talk of Jesus is at least in part genuine and so on.
Ok, so here we agree that there is an interpolation, right? This isn't just mythicists saying this...it is nearly a universal conclusion that Josephus could not have written the extant reference to Jesus. So, having agreed on that point, it is a matter of degree. You would like to throw out all evidence that this passage is a complete interpolation in order to salvage just the portions of what you want it to say. You want it to say what you can imagine Josephus really would write. You are arguing for an unattested passage, it doesn't exist anywhere but in the minds of scholars. How is this more convincing that the original argument that the entire TF is an interpolation? Notice that your own position relies on possibly multiple interpolations into the text of Josephus (I repeat that to be clear), it is almost universally agreed that the extant TF cannot have been written by Josephus. In the past it has been pointed out that:

--the TF breaks the flow of the chapter, it is a clear seam between the paragraph preceding it and the one following it.

--The TF is unattested to by writers such as Origen who had occasion to refer to it.

--The TF speaks of a figure who, if historical jesus arguments are correct, most likely would have elicited scorn and disdain from Josephus in keeping with his treatment of other would-be messiahs and desperate martyrs. it is out of character for Josephus to speak in even neutral terms about someone such as the Jesus proposed by the historical Jesus camp.


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Originally Posted by metacristi
As I said under a philosophy of science I outlined above (but to be clear I am referring only at Biblical studies, where there is usually very few available data, otherwise I agree that historians do have the right to talk of truth, the postmodernist view is of course bullshit) we have enough evidence to show that historicism is clearly superior to mythicism: the syncretism argument is too weak (Inanna and Zamolxis fail miserably as all other examples of dying and raising gods), Philo was not so influential given that nothing from him remained in mainstream Judaism
what is this "enough" evidence? Can you list it? I don't know of scholars who don't think Christianity is a syncretic religion. Whether or not Jesus actually existed, Christianity developed clearly syncretic myths regarding that supposedly historical figure.

I am not sure what you hope to gain from your observation that nothing influential from Philo remained in "mainstream" Judaism. Of course, the point is not about mainstream Judaism, but an offshoot of mainstream Judaism that was specifically rejected by mainstream Judaism.


Quote:
Originally Posted by metacristi
(also it seems that Paul do not talk exactly in Philo's terms even if he may have been influenced by him),
Of course, the point is that Paul would have been influenced by thought similar to Philo's. I have never argued that Paul talked in "exactly" Philo's terms.


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Originally Posted by metacristi
there is no good reason to think that the idea of a crucified messiah existed before the presumed death of Jesus, Paul definitely talks of a recently died Jesus, the attack on Q is controversial and so on.
I don't know what your point about Q is supposed to be. As far as crucified messiahs go, I am not so sure you are correct. I think there is room to believe some sects of Jews could imagine a crucified messiah-figure. Certainly, they could envision a suffering servant:

Quote:
Originally Posted by wisofsolomon
18] for if the righteous man is God's son, he will help him,
and will deliver him from the hand of his adversaries.
[19] Let us test him with insult and torture,
that we may find out how gentle he is,
and make trial of his forbearance.
[20] Let us condemn him to a shameful death,
for, according to what he says, he will be protected." (Wisdom of Solomon, Chapter 2)
Quote:
Mytrhicists can add tons of words here (which they usually do of course), what they need is a real breakthrough.
I have no idea what you mean here.



Quote:
Originally Posted by metacristi
Which is missing at the moment. I'm sorry but till then I find Ehrman much more persuasive. Including his view that we can even defend some 'second order' attributes assigned to Jesus (e.g. that he was an apocalyptic prophet). I'm sure that by putting the right restrictions to the use of the criterions we can strongly reduce the attributes that can be attributed to Jesus, I agree with the view that the use in conjunction of more criterions can offer us at least strong heuristics. Enough to defend the existence of fallible historical knowledge in the sense I talked above.
A lot of assertions of your belief. Very light on actual presentation of evidence.
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Old 08-13-2013, 12:27 PM   #58
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He follows a crucified man who lived, who died for our sins as a voluntary sacrifice, who was from the seed of David.

While I will agree no direct statement is made, he recounts the story of Jesus' death and resurrection.
So you rely on an attestation for a supernatural event and the event in the gospels that is most heavily derived from other sources and not from historical memory. And on that you wil make your stand for certainty? That sounds like a true believer.
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Old 08-13-2013, 12:34 PM   #59
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Mark says that Pilate's specific charge against Jesus was claiming to be the King of the Jews (15:26). That's why it was written on his titilus.
I think Grog is right. Mark says that the titulus of Jesus' "crime he was accused of" was "King of the Jews". There is nothing about any claim Jesus made. Mark is being ironic - Jesus claims to be the Messiah of Paul (14:62, compare 1 Th 4:16-17), not the Davidic Messiah the traditional Jews (including his disciples) expect. Pilate believes it is folly to crucify Jesus and thus fulfils Paul's saying that the crucified Messiah is a stumbling block (skandalon) to the Jews and folly to the Gentiles. In Mark's tale the prefect simply gives in to the scandalized Jews.

Best,
Jiri
Yes, I read the inscription as irony. Nowhere is Jesus found guilty of sedition.
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Old 08-13-2013, 02:19 PM   #60
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I think Grog is right. Mark says that the titulus of Jesus' "crime he was accused of" was "King of the Jews". There is nothing about any claim Jesus made. Mark is being ironic - Jesus claims to be the Messiah of Paul (14:62, compare 1 Th 4:16-17), not the Davidic Messiah the traditional Jews (including his disciples) expect. Pilate believes it is folly to crucify Jesus and thus fulfils Paul's saying that the crucified Messiah is a stumbling block (skandalon) to the Jews and folly to the Gentiles. In Mark's tale the prefect simply gives in to the scandalized Jews.

Best,
Jiri
Yes, I read the inscription as irony. Nowhere is Jesus found guilty of sedition.
Luke states he was perverting the nation. 23:2

Of course tipping money tables over would be sedition.

Found guilty? doubt there was a trial at all.
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