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		#111 | ||||
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 WHO was it that actually composed and gave us these so called Christ 'prophecies'? And when, where, and WHY? They are represented to be 'prophetic' pronouncements made by the cult figure 'Jesus' his-self, and in advance. But were they? Was there ever a real 1st century Jewish Prophet behind this, and other christ-ian 'prophecies'? Or was this 'prophecy' an invention of the 'Jesus' cult leaders and promoters as an ad hoc after the fact solution to the problem of the fact that there were already many 'christ' claiments and their followers present and teaching their own ideas and doctrines? Could these 'prophecies' from 'Jesus' cult have been the cult's literary means of retrojecting the cults claims as being prior, and thus falsely professing to hold priority over any and all other such claiments ....those non Jesus 'christs' and 'christ-ians' whom in point of fact, had preceded, and were established, and were the contemporary claiments during the late rise of the Jesus cult? I submit that this was the case.  | 
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		#112 | |||
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 Do you not reject Aristides, Justin Martyr, Theophilus of Antioch, Athenagoras, Minucius Felix, Arnobius, Ignatius, Papias, Polycarp, Tertullian, Irenaeus, Lucian, Celsus, Origen, Clement of Rome, Clement of Alexandria, Hippolytus, Barnabas, Hermas, Galen, Pliny, Cassius Dio, Dated NT manuscripts, Josephus, Tacitus, Suetonius and all writings which supposedly mention Christians before the 4th century?? You do put forward the notion that writings of antiquity must be rejected out of hand merely because they were preserved or believed to be manipulated by apologetics. A close examination of some of the writings you reject do show that they were most likely composed well before the 4th century and were not manipulated by the later forgers. Quote: 
	
 In fact, "Church History" may be a Massive forgery. At least Eusebius did NOT write the TF if he Died before Julian was Emperor of Rome.  | 
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		#113 | |
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		#114 | ||
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 This is essentially Earl Doherty's thesis, as summarized over a decade ago by Richard Carrier Quote: 
	
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		#115 | 
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			Not to argue, but only to clarify, my view is that there essentially was no 'Jesus' cult or 'Gospel story' at all in the 1st century. It coming into being and growing out of the Hellenic philosophical and theological 'Logos' and 'christ' conflicts of 2nd and 3rd centuries CE. 
		
		
		
		
		
		
		
	The Gospel's 'Jesus' nothing more than a crafted literary 'talking head' used to present a fabricated and false history that elevated the authority, and thus those 'Christ' doctrines endorsed and promoted by an emerging 'orthodox'. All these writings reflecting only the struggles for sectarian religious authority and dominance through the publication and distribution of an outlandish and self-serving fabricated religious tale.  | 
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		#116 | 
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			I agree. I thinks that's also something like Doherty's view.
		 
		
		
		
		
		
		
		
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		#117 | 
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			I have contacted the site Medicine, ancient and modern - A blog (from the University of Warwick) on ancient medicine and its many connections with later periods in history, who appear quite intimately involved with the "Reading Galen in Byzantium… and beyond" and have asked them whether they are able to furnish a history of the transmission of the Galen manuscripts containing the text of "De differentiis pulsuum" . 
		
		
		
		
		
		
		
	The OP is quite specific, and in order to answer the question as to whether Galen mentions Christians we are obliged to consult the manuscript tradition itself. Earlier discussion in this thread has eliminated three out of the five claimed references in Galen, leaving only two remaining references to be checked, both of which are to be found in the text of the manuscripts of "De differentiis pulsuum" .  | 
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