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08-28-2013, 09:36 AM | #1 | |
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Μαρκείων = itacism 'Μαρκίων' = 'Belonging to Mark' 'Associated With Mark' Via Itacism
I have been working on this forever. Just getting around to writing something serious. Let's start with Μαρκεία:
It is pronounced http://translate.google.com/?pg=PA83...B5%CE%AF%CE%B1 an example of its usage - http://books.google.com/books?id=xSt...%CE%B1&f=false If there were many libraries, churches, books etc (= a collection of writings of Mark i.e. a 'canon') would be: Μαρκείων = (pronounced with itacism = Μαρκίων) It is pronounced http://translate.google.com/?pg=PA83...AF%CF%89%CE%BD The question of when itacism showed up in Greece is an old one and epsilon iota is described as such. The reality that these two vowels were pronounced as 'i' (iota) is apparent from the oldest Christian inscriptions and the writings of Ireneaus: Quote:
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08-28-2013, 11:35 AM | #2 |
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Homeric epics = τῶν Ὁμηρείων ἐπέων Herodotus Histories 5.67.1
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08-28-2013, 11:40 AM | #3 |
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It is also interesting that you don't see early Father's speak about 'Johannine theology' Ιωάννεια θεολογία or 'Pauline Epistles.' Modern Greek scholars do. I wonder if this because the ancients were under the influence of the scriptures being inspired by one and the same Spirit?
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08-28-2013, 12:08 PM | #4 |
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I can find examples of Mark in the vocative case:
τὸ γὰρ σῶμα αὐτῆς κατὰ σέ, Μάρκε, μεταγενέστερον μὲν Κάδμου καὶ τῶν πρὸ αὐτοῦ, μεταγενέστερον δὲ τῶν τὰ λοιπὰ προστεθεικότων στοιχεῖα, μεταγενέστερον δὲ καὶ σαυτοῦ. σὺ γὰρ μόνος ὡς εἴδωλον κατήγαγες τὴν ὑπὸ σοῦ λεγομένην Ἀλήθειαν [Irenaeus via Epiphanius Panarion 11.2.2] εἰδωλοποιὲ Μάρκε καὶ τερατοσκόπε, ἀστρολογικῆς ἔμπειρε καὶ μαγικῆς τέχνης, δι' ὧν κρατύνεις τῆς πλάνης τὰ διδάγματα, σημεῖα δεικνὺς τοῖς ὑπὸ σοῦ πλανωμένοις, ἀποστατικῆς δυνάμεως ἐγχειρήματα, ἃ σοὶ χορηγεῖ σὸς πατὴρ Σατὰν ἀεὶ δι' ἀγγελικῆς δυνάμεως Ἀζαζὴλ ποιεῖν, ἔχων σε πρόδρομον ἀντιθέου πανουργίας. [ibid 11.2.23] Εΐδωλοττοιε Μάρκε και τΐρατοσκόπί, αστρολογικοί έμπειρε και μαγικής τέχνης |
08-28-2013, 01:11 PM | #5 |
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Unless I am mistaken there is an inscription of Philip the Arab (Marcus Julius Philippus) which shows the interchangeability of the spelling Μαρκείας and Μαρκίας for his wife Marcia Otacilia Severa
http://books.google.com/books?id=2GZ...%CF%82&f=false |
08-28-2013, 01:13 PM | #6 |
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I also found it online:
ἀγαθῇ τύχῃ. ὑπὲρ γ̣είας καὶ σω<τ>η- ρείας καὶ ἐωνείου <δ>- ιαμονῆς τοῦ μεγί- 5 στου καὶ θειοτά{τω}- του {²⁶θειοτάτου}²⁶ Αὐτοκράτορος Μ(άρκου) Ἰουλίου Φιλίππου Σεβ(αστοῦ) καὶ Μαρκείας Ὠτακιλίας Σευήρας 10 εβ(αστῆς), ἡγεμονεύντος ς̣ Θρᾳκῶν ἐπρχεί- ο̣υ̣ρνίου πρεσ |
08-28-2013, 01:15 PM | #7 |
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the 3rd century document 2 Peter 3:15-16 says Paul's Epistles are difficult (i.e., read as heretical by non-orthodox Christians). This is a document is probably only predated by Irenaeus and Justin's pseudo Apology among church fathers. (I don't trust any others as pre-3rd century)
The orthodox fathers mention NT writings with phrases like "John said," "the Apostle (Paul) said," "Luke said," "the Lord said," and so on. They did not speak of the written books as schools. The church fathers did speak of schools, but when they were categorizing opinions different than the harmonizing which was the focus of the early church. We speak of schools today because we try to deconstruct the books which have been harmonized into distinct blocks of material which represent various schools in Christianity as it formed in the first three centuries. I really have no idea what you think you have discovered. Its rather divorced from the writings and the theology involved. I suppose this goes back to your belief that Marcion is a fictitious name, which is just one of many derivations (Mark, Marcion, Markus, Marcosians, etc) for several groups, but came applied to one specific group. But the one thing that leads me to believe Marcion might have been an actual person, is that his followers declare him a bishop; in Dialogue Adamantius Megathius states, Μακίων ἐπίοκός μου ἦν. Marcion episcopus meus fuit. A strange thing to declare if there was no such person. But its possible no such existed. I think a much stronger case can be made for Valentinus as a fiction, as the name means the "strong" or "valiant" one, which 1 Corinthians 8 and Romans 14 seem to make reference to (Irenaeus AH 1.3.4, 1.6.1, etc) Whatever, even if correct, it simply changes Marcion from being a real individual to the mythic leader who is said to have founded a church. Not much different from anyone else associated with the NT. |
08-28-2013, 01:27 PM | #8 |
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I think Marcion was a real person but that his real name was Mark not Marcion
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08-28-2013, 01:30 PM | #9 |
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Okay, I will try and spell this out -even though I am in the process of writing. I have put the next two chapters in my book put on line here:
http://stephanhuller.blogspot.com/20...ter-three.html http://stephanhuller.blogspot.com/20...pter-four.html Here are the components of the idea: 1. Irenaeus was involved in a lawsuit with the heretical churches in Rome and in the provinces and successfully defended the Catholic occupation of Marcionite and Valentinian churches and property by a praescriptio 2. The issue at the heart of the gospel of Mark is the same as that in the praescriptio - whether Mark's writings or Mark's property (Μαρκείων) were his or Peter's (and by Peter 'the great Church') 3. Clement's description of Mark's gospel writing in the Hypotyposeis assumes that Mark wrote independently of Peter. This is confirmed in the Letter to Theodore. 4. Irenaeus's idea was that Mark was a mere secretary of Peter, i.e. it was 'Peter's gospel' and there were no separate churches of Mark that were not heretical. The property of Mark whether it be houses, writings etc belonged to the Church not the separate conventicles of Mark (i.e. the Marcionites). 5. The Coptic Church to this day confirms that it represents a separate Church from Peter and that a world-wide network of Markan churches once existed. 6. Nevertheless because of the success of Irenaeus's praescriptio the Marcionites lost all of their property (houses, writings) etc. But more importantly we can begin to understand why the Catholic New Testament is arranged the way it is. It becomes the de facto 'testamentum' of the Church 'proving' that Peter and the apostles existed before Mark (or Marcion if you will) thus assisting Irenaeus win his lawsuit. In other words the material was forged to prove primacy. The Catholics did need to prove to their idiotic followers anything. They would have believed anything because the body of the church never saw any of the sacred documents. The massive forgery which is the New Testament is arranged in an interconnected way in order to prove monarchia from the beginning under Peter. |
08-28-2013, 01:44 PM | #10 | ||
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A survival of the original accusation that the Marcionites 'stole' something that originally belonged to the Catholic Church:
Quote:
Quote:
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