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05-27-2013, 08:52 PM | #71 | |
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Just wondering how you evaluate, as you say you do, the arguments about the meaning of various NT texts -- not to mention what is and is not an interpolation -- that are based upon an analysis of the grammar and the syntax of those texts, and whether we should take any of your claims about what Greek texts mean, and which scholarly opinion on matters Greek is correct, with any seriousness. Thanks for clarifying. Jeffrey |
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05-27-2013, 09:01 PM | #72 |
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I'll take it, given this dodge and burden shifting reply, that the answer to my question is no, you have little proficiency in Hebrew.
Only I'm -not- wondering how you evaluate the meanings of the various Tanaka texts. Thus I do not take any of your claims about what any Biblical texts, Hebrew or Greek mean, with any seriousness. You are welcome. Sheshbazzar |
05-27-2013, 09:10 PM | #73 | ||
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05-27-2013, 09:12 PM | #74 | ||
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05-27-2013, 09:22 PM | #75 | |
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You may certainly take this issue up with me if and when when I make claims about about the meaning of Hebrew texts and especially about the validity of scholarly arguments about the meaning of Hebrew texts that are grounded in an analysis of the grammar and syntax of a given Hebrew test. But so far as I can see, I've made no such claims in this thread. In any case, my proficiency in Hebrew has no bearing whatsoever on whether or not you know Greek. I could be the world's foremost expert in Hebrew (I'm not, BTW), and that would say nothing about your competence in Greek or change whatever the fact is about whether you read it well and fully understand arguments about the meaning of NT passages that are based upon Greek grammar and syntax. You either do or you don't. Jeffrey |
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05-27-2013, 09:31 PM | #76 |
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Is there any redeeming value to this entire thread?
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05-27-2013, 09:37 PM | #77 |
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Perhaps -- it it is used as an example of how not to argue, and is taken as something that pushes the board to insist that all claims about what Biblical texts say or what their sources were, or how much they are interpolated, etc. or what scholars say must be backed up with argument and evidence, and that exegesis of, or claims about the meaning of, Greek texts should not be done/made on the basis of English translations of them.
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05-27-2013, 09:39 PM | #78 |
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The diddly details of Greek syntax and grammar are not going to remove the blatant contradictions and indications of tampering.
So Mr. Jeffrey, expert in Greek and NT texts. Do you find all of the alleged 'Pauline Epistles' to be the genuine writings of one 1st century 'Paul' ? |
05-27-2013, 09:48 PM | #79 | |
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This has been discussed in the New Forum rules. I don't do it with Hebrew, and you don't do it with Greek, and the Forum will remain pleasantly ignorant for the pleasure of the ignorant |
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05-27-2013, 09:50 PM | #80 | ||
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Please tell us your position with respect to the OP? We already know that you say or imply that you know some kind of Greek. Well after translation, it is found that the Pauline writings are historically and chronologically bogus without corroboration in the Canon and unknown by 2nd century Apologetic sources. "Against Heresies", the first source to mention the Pauline Corpus did not even realize that if Jesus was crucified c 48-50 CE that the Pauline letters are forgeries or falsely attributed to Paul. Arnobius in writing "Against the Heathen" sometime late in the 3rd century did not acknowledge the Pauline writings. There is an abundance of evidence from antiquity that support LATE Pauline writings. Now, where is the DATA for early Pauline writings? I know the answer. It is in Greek--Not yet translated to English!!! |
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