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Old 06-20-2013, 12:11 AM   #291
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No, you didn't address my 6 claims. Instead you brought up gMark, which I hadn't even mentioned. I don't want the thread to disintegrate any further, sliding off-topic. As I said in the OP, I'm assuming the Jews WERE the first Christians. Since you don't agree, the thread really isn't for you. People can judge for themselves.
Again, your claim is false. I am addressing the OP. It is absurd to suggest that only people who agree with your OP can post on this thread. This is an open forum. People can disagree with your assumptions and show that the very Bible contradicts your speculation.

This forum was not really set up for the propagation of false assumptions.

1. gMark is in the Bible.

2. gMark contains a story of Jesus in Galille in the time of Pilate.

3. gMark shows that Jesus was a Transfiguring Sea Water walker who was raised from the dead.

4. gMark mentions Jews including Pharisees.

5. gMark shows that Jesus was NOT called Christ by the Populace in Galilee and Jerusalem.

6. gMark shows that Jesus deliberately spoke in Parables so the the Populace would REMAIN in Sin.,

7. gMark shows that Jesus commanded his disciples to tell NO man he was Christ.

8. gMark shows that Jesus was either Betrayed, Abandoned or Denied by his disciples up to the day he was DEAD.

9. gMark shows that Jesus was REJECTED and asked to be Crucified by the Jewish Populace.

10. gMark shows that the visitors to the Empty Tomb told NO-ONE that Jesus was resurrected.

11. gMark shows that there were NO Jewish Christians up to the time Jesus was dead.

12. Apologetic sources have ADMITTED that the Jews claimed the Christ had NOT come.

The assumption that there were Jewish Christians is extremely weak, wholly flawed and is not supported by the early stories of Jesus in the very Bible.
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Old 06-20-2013, 12:32 AM   #292
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Are you unclear on peer review? It generally takes place in the editor's office. It is supposed to guarantee the basic accuracy of what is published.
Sure, but that doesn't mean the peers agreed with the conclusions of the author or how questionable theoretical statistics have been employed. That's why I'd like to see what they have to say.
So you don't know how peer review works.



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But, if either of your 2 ending scenarios is right, it contradicts what you said just prior:
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Or there was one author who didn't care if he looked Josephan or not, because he was convinced that he was adding something that ought to have been there.
I'm not following the argument. Which two ending scenarios?

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It is illogical to propose that one person was both 'imitating' Josephus but also 'didn't care if he looked Josephan'. As stated here ...
I find this all very contrived. It assumes that the forgery or interpolation was done with evil intent, so the forger would have tried to cover his tracks. But I think the more likely scenario was that Eusebius was the forger, he spent enough time reading Josephus to absorb some of his language, and he didn't think he was doing anything wrong by adding in some text that should have been there. He might have felt himself guided by the Holy Spirit.


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I'm not trying to do that.
You always claim not to be pushing Christianity, but you always repeat arguments that Christian apologists use, and most of these arguments are very poorly reasoned.

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And notice that even the analysts who claim to be able to extract a valid original cannot get much more information out of it than Jesus existed, had followers, was crucified, and followers maybe thought he rose from the dead and continued to hold him in esteem. But none of this comes from Josephus' personal knowledge - it could just be second or third hand hearsay. This passage would not absolutely prove that there was a historical Jesus even if it were original.
This is baffling. It would go a long way toward establishing credibility of the basic outline. I think few would consider it to be a story without foundation, if coming from Josephus, a historian born and raised in Galilee in 37AD. He had nothing to gain from reporting the story, would not have reported it unless it was a significant event during Pilate's reign, and therefore would easily have been able to verify those basic events. And, just the fact of his reporting it would indicate that Jesus had been a highly popular figure, and not some preacher with a small following unworthy of mention. It would be very significant.
Well, there's the gotcha. If Jesus was such a highly popular figure, why has no one else mentioned him? Where is there any undisputed evidence of his existence?

The entire scholarly historical Jesus industry has had to define Jesus down to be an obscure Jewish wandering wisdom teacher to make him fit the lack of evidence. If the mention if Josephus makes him out to be a well known popular figure - there's a big disconnect.
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Old 06-20-2013, 05:43 AM   #293
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You KNOW what it is and that there is plenty of it, and like I said - you dismiss it.

1-Christianity began as a breakaway sect of Judaism


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In his writings on Christianity, which he calls, “Minut,” Rabbi Avraham Yitzhak HaKohen Kook explains that it began as a breakaway sect of Judaism which grew in influence and ultimately led the world astray with its doctrines.

He categorizes it as idol worship, and says that its founder brought the majority of the world to err by serving a god other than the Almighty. By abandoning the mitzvot, Christianity enshrouded the world in a seemingly legitimate offshoot of idol worship. While imitating many of Judaism’s values and beliefs, Christianity actually led the world away from the true service of God.
http://noahide-ancient-path.co.uk/in.../2012/07/4447/

2- The followers of the Jewish dissenter were declared heretics and enemies of Judaism around 80 AD


In the 18 benedictions of the Amidah a curse was inserted which was directed against the Jewish Christians.


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12. MINIM (SHOVER OYVIM U-MAKHNIA ZEDIM): "And once judgment has been performed on the wicked, then there will be an end to the heresy [minut], including the malicious [zedim], as it is said (Yeshayahu 1) 'And the sinners and the transgressors are together shattered.'"
The inclusion of number 12, the blessing (really it is a kind of curse) regarding the heretics, is an anachronism in this passage since it was not arranged by the 120 elders but was added only much later with the unfortunate schism of Jews who attended synagogue but were really believers in Christianity
http://www.vbm-torah.org/archive/mb/63mb.htm

And explained by,


Lawrence H. Schiffman, Who was a Jew?, Ktav Publishing House Inc.,Hoboken , New Jersey,1985 ISBN 0881250546 In pages 51 to 67 he discusses Judaism with early Christianity. In pages 60-61 he writes:

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It is possible to trace the development of this benediction. The original threat to Judaism was from Jewish Christianity and so a reference against the minim ( a general term here referring to Jewish Christians) was introduced into a previously existing benediction.

Many rabbinic texts speak of the minim and clearly designate believers in Jesus

The specific effect of the benediction was to insure that those who were minims would not serve as precentors in the synagogue. After all, no one would be willing to pray for his own destruction.

Such a benediction in its original form can have been directed only against Jews who despite their heretical beliefs were likely to be found in the synagogue. Gentile Christians would not have been in the synagogue nor would they have been called to serve as precentors.

When the separation of the Jewish Christians from the synagogue was accomplished, the prayer was retained as a general malediction and prayer for the destruction of the enemies of Israel. Therefore the nosrim was also added
3- What did the one Jewish sect believe in before its expulsion from the synagogue circa 80 AD?

PS I am asking what the Jewish sect of Yeshua Messiah believed before the Pharisees effectively barred them from participation in the Jewish synagogue
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Old 06-20-2013, 06:02 AM   #294
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I just skimmed the thread, so I apologize if this has already been posted.

In 70 AD, the Second Temple was destroyed (along with much of Jerusalem), and the vast majority of the Jews were driven from Israel. Suddenly there was a vacuum of sorts in Judaism - without the Temple, how could the Jews follow the Law, which requires regular Temple sacrifices? With no Temple, what did YHWH require of them now - and why would he allow the Temple to be destroyed?

There were a number of attempts to answer this question. The two that survived are these: Messiah already came and sacrificed himself on our behalf, thus bringing an end to the need for Temple sacrifices (Christianity), or - alternately - YHWH has decreed that the Jews shall sacrifice metaphorically, by devoting themselves to study of the Torah and to doing good deeds (Judaism). Since these two surviving branches of OT Judaism were at odds with each-other, they engaged in a theological struggle.

Jewish Christianity was seriously diverging from OT Judaism by saying that YHWH had put an end to Temple sacrifice via a single human sacrifice. This idea is anathema to any OT adherent. Add to this the fact that Jewish Christians decided to allow Gentiles into their cult, and it was inevitable that Christianity would cease to be a Jewish religion at all within a very short time.
I can see how Jews might have faced a question about how to proceed when the Temple is destroyed, but I don't see where you think the answer came from.
The answers came from the myriad of Jewish cults which survived the destruction of the Temple and the Diaspora. The largest Diaspora cult was the Pharisees, who had moved their HQ out of Jerusalem years earlier. But other groups survived as well, and each of them had their own theories as to why YHWH had allowed the Temple to be destroyed.

The Pharisees became the torch-bearers of what is today Orthodox (Rabbinic) Judaism. The Jesus cult was considered apostate by the Pharisees, and the two groups split early in the 2nd century, with the Jesus cult becoming more and more Gentile as Pharisaical Judaism pushed them further and further away.

"Where the answer(s) came from" was classical Jewish argument and discussion. Some of these arguments were written down in the Talmud. Others are lost to time.
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Old 06-20-2013, 06:10 AM   #295
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3- What did the one Jewish sect believe in before its expulsion from the synagogue circa 80 AD?
There was no "one Jewish sect" prior to the Diaspora. Judaism was as diverse as Christianity or Islam today, with dozens of competing schools of thought arguing between and among themselves. The destruction of Jerusalem and the Temple also destroyed most of these sects, since their schools were in Jerusalem. When Jerusalem was sacked, most of the the Rabbis were killed. The only major sect to survive was the Pharisees, whose school had left Jerusalem years earlier in protest against the "unclean" practices of the Sadducees, among other reasons.

This left the Pharisees as the only major Jewish sect in the post-Diaspora world, making it possible for them to determine the course of Judaism going forward.

As to what they believed, there's a decent wiki on the Pharisees which is worth a read.

ETA: Apologies, I misunderstood your original question. Are you asking what the Jewish sect of Yeshua Messiah believed before the Pharisees effectively barred them from participation in the Jewish synagogue? The answer would appear to be that they believed pretty much as the Pharisees believed, with the oddball addition that Messiah had already come, and been killed with the consent of a Jewish mob.

NT Christianity as expressed in the Gospels was Pharisaical. Jesus was a Pharisee, if his teachings are any indication. This is actually another bit of evidence for Christianity emerging in the post-Diaspora period, when Pharisaical Judaism was the only Judaism left standing.
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Old 06-20-2013, 06:43 AM   #296
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Davka, there is not a shred of mention anywhere in Jewish texts of the existence of Jewish Christian minim at the time of the Pharisees in Judea in synagogues or anywhere else.. The minim were Hellenist and Saduccee sects. Isn't it interesting that even Acts forgot to document their alleged existence throughout Judea?
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Old 06-20-2013, 06:43 AM   #297
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Originally Posted by Davka View Post
NT Christianity as expressed in the Gospels was Pharisaical. Jesus was a Pharisee, if his teachings are any indication. This is actually another bit of evidence for Christianity emerging in the post-Diaspora period, when Pharisaical Judaism was the only Judaism left standing.
If NT Christianity was Pharisaical, and Jesus was a Pharisee, then can you explain why the NT writers make the Pharisees the arch-villians of Jesus (and therefore Christianity)?
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Old 06-20-2013, 06:55 AM   #298
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The answers came from the myriad of Jewish cults which survived the destruction of the Temple and the Diaspora. The largest Diaspora cult was the Pharisees, who had moved their HQ out of Jerusalem years earlier. But other groups survived as well, and each of them had their own theories as to why YHWH had allowed the Temple to be destroyed.

The Pharisees became the torch-bearers of what is today Orthodox (Rabbinic) Judaism. The Jesus cult was considered apostate by the Pharisees, and the two groups split early in the 2nd century, with the Jesus cult becoming more and more Gentile as Pharisaical Judaism pushed them further and further away.

"Where the answer(s) came from" was classical Jewish argument and discussion. Some of these arguments were written down in the Talmud. Others are lost to time.
Your post is filled with imaginative fiction completely unsupported by ancient sources of antiquity.

It is already known that the Jews did not claim Jesus Christ had come up to at least the 4th century and the author of the earliest Canonised story was Not likely a Jew.

There is no actual documented evidence of any Jew who worshiped a man called Jesus as a God.

In the earliest Canonised story of Jesus there were NO Jewish Christians up to the day Jesus character was Crucified.

Jesus was asked to be Crucified when he was REJECTED as Christ and the Son of God.


Mark 14 kjv
Quote:
Again the high priest asked him, and said unto him, Art thou the Christ, the Son of the Blessed?

62And Jesus said , I am : and ye shall see the Son of man sitting on the right hand of power, and coming in the clouds of heaven.

63Then the high priest rent his clothes, and saith , What need we any further witnesses? 64 Ye have heard the blasphemy: what think ye? And they all condemned him to be guilty of death.

65And some began to spit on him...
There were NO Jewish Christians in gMark, the earliest Canonised story of Jesus, up to the day he was dead and None have been identified by non-apologetic sources.

Jewish Christians are found in the fiction story called Acts of the Apostles AFTER Jesus ascended in a cloud and a Ghost from God gave the disciples Power to preach the Gospel in multiple languages on the day of Pentecost.
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Old 06-20-2013, 07:24 AM   #299
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Are you unclear on peer review? It generally takes place in the editor's office. It is supposed to guarantee the basic accuracy of what is published.
Sure, but that doesn't mean the peers agreed with the conclusions of the author or how questionable theoretical statistics have been employed. That's why I'd like to see what they have to say.
So you don't know how peer review works.
The statistical argument by several statistitions working on the Taipot Tomb, for example, was 'peer reviewed' and published, yet they certainly didn't agree with his use of statistics, as that use requires underlying assumptions. I assume Carrier also used underlying assumptions, and probably qualified his statistics/conclusions on those. That's accurate and ok to do but doesn't mean (think Taipot Tomb again) that the assumptions are not debated among the peers.



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But, if either of your 2 ending scenarios is right, it contradicts what you said just prior:
Or there was one author who didn't care if he looked Josephan or not, because he was convinced that he was adding something that ought to have been there.
I'm not following the argument. Which two ending scenarios?
The ones YOU gave when you said:

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None of it is so unusual that you could be sure that it was either written by him or by someone trying to imitate him.



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It is illogical to propose that one person was both 'imitating' Josephus but also 'didn't care if he looked Josephan'. As stated here ...
I find this all very contrived. It assumes that the forgery or interpolation was done with evil intent, so the forger would have tried to cover his tracks. But I think the more likely scenario was that Eusebius was the forger, he spent enough time reading Josephus to absorb some of his language, and he didn't think he was doing anything wrong by adding in some text that should have been there. He might have felt himself guided by the Holy Spirit.
For me THAT has the feeling of being contrived, and unlikely. You don't just 'absorb' someone else's language like that. Eusebius didn't just spend all of this time reading Josephus. You are suggesting the following:

1. Eusebius decided to make up an entire passage about Jesus and try to pass it off as from the hand of Josephus himself without considering the idea that it was forgery and wrong to misrepresent the work of someone else.

2. Eusebius did this without considering the idea that Josephus himself would never have written some of the things in the passage, including that Jesus was the Messiah, because they were completely out of character for Josephus.

OR

3. Eusebius, seeing the need to correct a tremendous omission by Josephus, decided to write a passage to insert into Josephus' works. He did not try at all to write a passage that looked Josephan even though he knew that anyone reading it would assume it was written by Josephus, but that as it turned out it DOES look remarkably Josephan in all but a few phrases because Eusebius 'absorbed' Josephus' style and language.

I find these to be highly contrived and unlikely. A whole cloth interpolator wasn't accidentally doing anything, and would have KNOWN they were forging work. As such, even if his intent isn't 'evil' he would still TRY to pass it off as the original work. In doing so he wouldn't don't show his cards by putting in phrases that clearly weren't original, and that he knew were not consistent with anything else the writer wrote, while simultaneously and subconsciously using that writers style and vocabulary for the other parts.




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You always claim not to be pushing Christianity, but you always repeat arguments that Christian apologists use
Like Jesus was a Nazirite? Like the spark for Christianity was a theological coincidence of a sacrificed man during passover, and NOT actual resurrection appearances? You see what is consistent with your worldview.


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Well, there's the gotcha. If Jesus was such a highly popular figure, why has no one else mentioned him? Where is there any undisputed evidence of his existence?
Like who? JTB was a highly popular figure too. Who else mentioned him? Why didn't others? Those who think the Josephus passage about JTB was interpolated have no credible argument, as it says nothing about the most important Christian claims regarding his role to prepare 'the way'.

It would be different if Jesus' ministry lasted 20 years, with thousands of obvious proofs of his miracles, etc.. But that's not how he is described inthe gospels. His ministry only lasted a few years. Almost all of his miracles weren't witnessed by any large groups of people. His ministry was in the wilderness and small towns, and not based on a city like Jerusalem, or a place where those likely to record the events lived. Herod, though he had heard of him didn't even go out to see him. Pilate didn't know who he was. And, there were many skeptics eager to dismiss his importance -- enough to get him crucified.

He was, in the whole scheme of the historical record, but a flash in the pan. Just as things were getting going, he was killed. That doesn't mean he wasn't widely followed or highly popular though. It just was too quick to expect much record in the history books. However, one WOULD expect some record of Christians once they became significant in number or deed.
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Old 06-20-2013, 07:48 AM   #300
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I would go one step further and say that among the fictions of Eusebius were the alleged Ebionites or other "Jewish Christian" sects. There is no proof that there were any Ebionites or such anywhere. So much of the house of cards of the history of the earliest centuries before Constantine is built on fictions created by Eusebius (=Josephus?).
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