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03-25-2013, 09:50 PM | #291 | ||||||
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RE: κακοδαιμον
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The OP is quite specific. It's about "Daimon". Quote:
The second step is to examine it. Quote:
If there are no negative qualifiers to "daimon" in the text, then what I do with this evidence is point at the English translation and question its validity on a general basis. If the term "daimon" is simply rendered in translation as "spirit", without the negative qualifiers, what if any meaning is substantially changed in these extracts? Quote:
You offered to provide all instances of the term from Homer to the 1st century CE. I think this will be an excellent resource to be discussed so long as you provide the corresponding English translations. Quote:
Have you read the OP? It is not necessary to restrict discussion to Greek writers since Latin writers also wrote about the "Daemon". The OP cites Ammianus as follows: Quote:
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03-25-2013, 09:59 PM | #292 | ||
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Well Horatio Parker if the truth be known I was reading Ammianus (see the quote above, or in the OP) and also was intrigued by its import. Quote:
Is it legal to take responsibility for our own lives? εὐδαιμονία | eudaimonia |
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03-25-2013, 10:05 PM | #293 | ||||
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Quite in line with the thesis of Charles Freeman concerning the Greek intellectual tradition (that it did not just fade away, but was suppressed), I don't think the idea of the good daimon [Greek], or the good daemon [Latin], fell from the wayside, but rather it, too, was suppressed. Hence the use of the term "subversion" in the OP. Quote:
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We have only to read Matthew. Quote:
The term was cast out by the Numero Uno Jesus himself. εὐδαιμονία | eudaimonia |
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03-25-2013, 10:28 PM | #294 | |||||
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For the purposes of this thread and discussion of the OP I am prepared to deny the validity of this claim. We may assume Matthew wrote in the 1st century. I am quite capable of examining evidence within the traditional framework. Therefore I previously divided the evidence as a) before the 1st century b) after the 1st century until closure of the canon. Quote:
It would form the beginning of a basis for a proper study. Isn't that what most of us (except me of course) are doing here? Quote:
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The point is not at all just what I think but what other contributors to this thread also think. εὐδαιμονία | eudaimonia |
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03-25-2013, 11:25 PM | #295 | ||||||||||
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L&S on this is: Quote:
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Note that it does not mean "guardian spirit". As the textual notes to the Loeb translation of AM observes, μυσταγωγός is the name applied to the priest who gave the initiated instruction in the mysteries. Later it was used of the guide who showed strangers the noteworthy objects in a place CP LSJ Quote:
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familiaris genios, not daemones. L&S entry on fămĭlĭāris is Quote:
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03-25-2013, 11:50 PM | #296 | ||||
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It's a yes or no question. And are you also saying that there are no non Christian Latin texts that use daemon with a pejorative sense? That every instance of the use of daemons in Latin is with the good sense? Again, a yes or no question. Quote:
An expression which is also found in the Philostratus text I cited which is clearly an exorcism story. . Jeffrey |
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03-26-2013, 12:04 AM | #297 | |||||||||||
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Ammianus quotes from the poet Menander in Greek. In that quote is the citation to "daimon"/"daemon". BTW thanks for the L&S explanatory notes on the related material. εὐδαιμονία | eudaimonia |
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03-26-2013, 07:13 AM | #298 | ||
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Yes. So what? Are there no other Latin authors besides AM who quote Greek writers?
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There is no citation of daemon in the AM text, let alone in his quote of Menander. What you adduce is the word that the English translator of AM used for the Menander's δαίμων. So you are once again misrepresenting what ancient texts say. And if all you wanted to show us was that Menander used the word δαίμων and that Latin authors knew of Greek texts which contained δαίμων, why did you give us the all the other material from AM that you did and bold passages within that material. What did you think that these passages demonstrated? Jeffrey |
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03-26-2013, 01:18 PM | #299 | |||||
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However, http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Daemon_...cal_mythology) says "Daemons are good or benevolent nature spirits". Hesiod says "(Op. 121–126; cf. 252–255) the souls of the men of the Golden Age have "by the will of Zeus" become "benevolent daimones on earth (δαίμονες ἐπιχθόνιοι), watchers of mortal men," invisibly roaming the earth, dispensing riches like kings and taking note of right and wrong. They are powers working among men "on earth"; hence they are called ἐπιχθόνιοι, in contrast to the ἐπουράνιοι, "celestial," gods whose sphere of activity extends to the inaccessible realms beyond this world. Because of their lofty state—they have raised from human mortality to godlike immortality—Hesiod describes them as daimones" http://www.encyclopedia.com/article-...96/daimon.html Hesiod's vision of the Golden Age gives an indication of an earlier Greek vision of nature as good, contrasting to the prevailing Christian assumption that nature is evil. This makes sense against the history of the Christian condemnation of natural theology. Quote:
The change in the meaning of demon to pure evil is a massive example of the Orwellian nature of the Christian church, how it intentionally redefined the meaning of key mythic terms in order to control history. |
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03-26-2013, 02:18 PM | #300 | ||
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Now let me ask you -- it is correct to say that there is no such adjectival modifier as you claim is necessary to show that a writer who uses δαίμων means "evil spirit" in Matthew, yes? So by your own logic, isn't is wholly illegitimate to say, as you do, that Matthew assumes, and is actually saying, that the δαίμων he mentions is "evil"?. The very thing that you say is necessary to show that he makes this assumption and says that it is evil is absent from Mathew. So aren't you engaging in petitio principii, let alone contradicting yourself, when you claim that it is certain that Matthew is using δαίμων to mean "evil spirit? Quote:
Jeffrey |
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