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08-10-2013, 06:50 PM | #11 |
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I think the idea that Jesus was hailing the advent of someone else is intimated in a number of anti-Marcionite texts and in particular De Recta in Deum Fide.
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08-10-2013, 08:11 PM | #12 |
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That's actually Ehrman's theory too.
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08-10-2013, 08:50 PM | #13 | |||||||
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I cannot rely on your explanation at all. You seem to think "MAPKON" refers to German MAP makers. It would appear the authors of the Gospels used the Septuagint and NOT the Hebrew Bible. When the Septuagint is examined the Greek version of Daniel 7.13 and the Greek New Testament version of Mark 14.62 the phrases "son of man" and "with the clouds of heaven" are found. The Jesus character was LIKE a/the Son of man and would come with the clouds of heaven. ΔΑΝΙΗΛ 7.13 Quote:
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ΔΑΝΙΗΛ 7.13-------------- τῶν νεφελῶν τοῦ οὐρανοῦ. KATA MAPKON 14.62 -----τῶν νεφελῶν τοῦ οὐρανοῦ. ΚΑΤΑ ΜΑΤΘΑΙΟΝ 24:30---τῶν νεφελῶν τοῦ οὐρανοῦ |
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08-10-2013, 08:51 PM | #14 |
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08-10-2013, 09:35 PM | #15 |
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Jesus says that the Son of Man will suffer, be crucified and die. The Islamic pseudepigrapha says that figure was Judas. The gnostic heretics seem to have had a similar idea:
How, then, could Judas, the betrayer of Him who had to suffer for our salvation, be the type and image of that AEon who suffered? [Irenaeus Adv Haer 2.10.2] Judas, then, the twelfth in order of the disciples, was not a type of the suffering AEon, nor, again, was the passion of the Lord [ibid 2.10.3] |
08-10-2013, 11:18 PM | #16 |
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Just to put the academic discussion, at least as it relates to the use of Son of Man in the Parables of 1st Enoch, into a historical perspective, here is what one of the earlier heavy hitting critics had to say:
(Charles, R H) APOT vol 2 Pseudepigrapha (1913)FWIW, Tertullian De Cultu Fem. i.3 refers to Tertullian's defense of the Book of Enoch in On the Apparel of Women: "But since Enoch in the same Scripture [i.e., the Book of Enoch in the form known to Tertullian] has preached likewise concerning the Lord, nothing at all must be rejected by us which pertains to us; ... By the Jews it may now seem to have been rejected for that (very) reason, just like all the other (portions) nearly which tell of Christ." Origen Contra Celsum v.52 refers to Against Celsus book 5, chapter 52, where Origen quotes Celsus: "and [they, i.e. the angels] were cast under the earth and punished with chains, and that from this source originate the warm springs, which are their tears." ἀνὴρ = (a) man ἄνθρωπος = (a) man/human being ἄνθρωποι = men/human beings οἱ ἄνθρωποι = the men υἱὸς ἀνθρώπου = (a) son of (a) man/human being υἱοὶ ἀνθρώπων sons of men/human beings/mankind οἱ υἱοὶ τῶν ἀνθρώπων = the sons of (the) men ὁ υἱὸς τοῦ ἀνδρὸς = the son of (the) man ὁ υἱὸς τοῦ ἀνθρώπου = the son of (the) man/human being בר נשא = bar nasha' = son of man/human being ברה דאנשא = b'reh de-nasa = son of the man/human being ברה דגברא = b'reh de-gabra = son of the particular man Be aware that I have formatted the hell out of this extract, and hopefully have rendered the Hebrew/Aramaic words correctly. I am a bad man ... baaaaad! DCH DCH |
08-11-2013, 12:26 PM | #17 |
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I've been wondering about the possibility of it being a qualitative genitive (or whatever it's called), i.e. "the human son", in relation to "the Father". God's human son. Don't know if anyone have said anything about this?
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08-11-2013, 03:12 PM | #18 | |||||||||||||||||||
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So I proceeded to match the Ethiopic words Charles said were in the Ethiopic translation, and which he had translated as "Son of Man" or "son of man," with the translation of Knibb, I get the following (FWIW, I was forced to pare down the text - I assume you included so much in order to preserve context - to the bare essentials, and added chapter 60:1-10, where Enoch himself is called a "son of man" - because I too am concerned about context):
I noticed that Knibb (or the editor of whatever book that might have republished Knibb's work with "liberties," such as the one by Andy McCracken), has translated what Charles says was walda b'esi in 62:5 as "son of a woman." Perhaps this was done to resonate with vs 4, where "labor pains" will overcome the "kings and the mighty and the exalted ... who possess the earth" when the "Chosen One" will pronounce judgment on them when the "spirit of righteousness" is poured on him by the Lord of Spirits when the LoS sits on his throne. This is apparently due to a textual variant mentioned by Charles in the footnote to vs 62:5: "Son of Man a-w, 'Son of the woman' m,β. See xlvi. 2 (note)". The note to 46:2 referred to above is "2. ... that Son of Man. Cf. xlvi. 4, xlviii. 2, lxii. 9, 14, lxiii. 11, lxix. 26, 27, lxx. 1, lxxi. 1, in all of which passages the demonstrative [pronoun, which in English is translated 'that' or 'this'] occurs; it is missing only in Ixii. 7. But, ‘that’ and ‘this’ in our [Ethiopic] translator are usually renderings of the Greek article, and so here. Thus in Enoch this title is the distinct designation of the personal Messiah, and the Greek equivalent must have been ὁ υἱὸς τοῦ ἀνθρώπου and not υἱὸς ἀνθρώπου." A list of the relevant passages follows: walda sab'e (son of man/human being) xlvi. 2, 3, 4 (46:2, 3, 4) xlviii. 2 (48:2) lx. 10 (60:10 ) walda b'esi (son of (a specific) man) lxii. 5 (62:5) lxix. 29a,b (69:29a, 29b) lxxi. 14 (71:14) walda 'eguala 'ema hejaw (son of the offspring of the mother of the living)* lxii. 7, 9, 14 (62:7, 9, 14) lxiii. 11 (63:11) lxix. 26, 27 (69:26, 27) lxx. 1 (70:1) lxxi. 17 (71:17) *The Ethiopic NT uses the phrase 'eguala 'emahejaw (offspring of the mother of the living) Dan vii. 13 (7:13) Psa lxxix. 18 (79:18) Eze (90 times) Rev i. 13 (1:13) Rev xiv. 14 (14:14) Gospels (exclusively for ὁ υἱὸς τοῦ ἀνθρώπου = the son of the man) DCH |
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08-12-2013, 07:12 PM | #19 | |
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I have come to believe that the second group, was the creation of the writer of Mark's gospel, to consciously conflate the coming of Lord Jesus of Paul and the Danielic-Enochian apocalyptic figure. Note that in Mark 13:26-27 the SoM performs essentially the same "rapture" operation as Paul's Lord in 1 Th 4:16:17. Paul's passage seems clearly inspired by Daniel but he and Mark after him add the collection of the faithful from the earth. Matthew (and Luke after him, Mt 24:30-31, Lk 21:27-28) dropped the evacuation of the faithful from the proceedings, a clear sign that neither of their communities held onto the spiritual resurrection schema of Paul. Best, Jiri |
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08-14-2013, 12:35 AM | #20 |
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That's basically his whole thesis in Apocalyptic Prophet of the New Millennium He argues in that whole book that Jesus thought the "son of man" was somebody else, not himself (Ehrman's theory is that it was intended as an elliptical, but not titular reference to Daniel) and that Jesus thought he could bring this figure down through his attack on the Temple.
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